energiewende wrote:Let me ask two questions:
1. What evidence would be required to persuade you that outcome differences are due to internal (cultural, etc.) factors rather than external (systemic racism) factors?
Just for starters, the
absence of blatantly obvious examples of external factors popping up in controlled studies. For example, if Susan Helena Schmidt and Jazmyn Taniah Freeman submit identical resumes to 100 employers, I would expect to see Ms. Freeman getting roughly the same number of requests for job interviews as Ms. Schmidt.
[If you didn't know, the former is an attempt to construct a 'white' American name that few blacks would have, while the latter is a 'black' American name that few whites would have]
If instead Ms. Freeman gets, say, 70% as many requests, there's a systematic external problem. And one with real consequences- if she goes searching for a job, it will take her at least 1.4 times longer to find it on average. That in turn means she is more likely to keep a disadvantageous, low-paying job (because finding a new one is hard). She is more likely to become clinically depressed or discouraged while she IS searching for a new job, resulting in her job search stretching out
even longer and being less productive, because no one wants to hire a person who's obviously depressed and stressed out.
This in turn means that she is likely to be poorer, to have a lower-paying job and have it a lower percentage of the time, to be more likely to have to work two jobs to make ends meet, to have less time to raise children... et cetera. I'm sure you're familiar with the concept of a vicious cycle.
Now, if this effect and others like it
did not exist, I would be more skeptical of the idea that external racism causes blacks to have socioeconomic problems. But they do exist.
2. If you were persuaded that internal factors were to blame for outcome differences between races, what would your policy response be?
I think there is a very high probability that differences in outcomes in the US are simply not due to 'oppression'. It does not make sense to me that people can arrive from China, Philippines, and Vietnam and do enormously better than people from Mexico (which is the richest of those four countries, by some margin, and even more so historically) because whites decide to be less racist to, say, Vietnamese, than to mestizo Mexcians who are much more genetically and culturally similar to them (btw, it's more likely the asians will be in the upper class, as they are in Peru).
You might need detailed knowledge of these things instead of trying to figure out the facts by looking at wealth statistics. A lot of things are hard to explain until you understand the context.
If I had to guess: It's because a large fraction of all Mexican (and other Latino) immigrants are specifically coming to the US with the intent of becoming manual laborers to support a family in Latin America, and hopefully going back one day. A Salvadorean laborer (here for income
right now more than anything else) is going to define "success" differently from either, say, a Chinese graduate student (here to get a technical education) or a Vietnamese boat person (here to stay with no place else to go). They will pursue different strategies for success, and will tend to get different long-term socioeconomic outcomes.
I also don't know of any policy intervention that has reliably been able to levelise differences. Of course US is a very free society, it doesn't force people to live this way or that, and maybe that's good. But if differences in outcomes are due to different ways of life (or cultures, if you prefer) then if US is to remain a free society then it has to accept those differences in outcomes.
When differences in outcomes are blatantly NOT caused by different ways of life, or when the different way of life is itself caused by external forces damaging the community, then the opposite is true.
You cannot live in freedom if outsiders are harassing and penalizing you for trying to live at all, or if they try to punish you for not living the "obviously right" way, which is what Grandmaster Jogurt was getting at.
It's easy for successful members of the majority to say that everyone should live in fashion XYZ, because
they live in fashion XYZ and are successful.
But suppose they make access to XYZ limited for minority groups. Then they say it is perfectly right and proper for the minority to suffer because they fail to do XYZ. That is morally revolting, and very much anti-freedom, for any reasonable definition of 'freedom.'