Going back to this...aerius wrote: ↑2017-10-28 04:31pm Define "choice of the voters". Are you talking about the nation as a whole, whether the state/city/whatever got a representative that reflects the vote, or something else? For instance in a FPP system a candidate could get 30% of the popular vote and still be elected to represent everyone in his district, is that "democratic" since 70% of the people didn't vote for him? Or let's say we do proportional representation on a provincial/national level, and we get an even 3-way split between team Weiner-Holder, the Butt-Toucher party, and the Pussy-Grabbers. If I live in a city that's 90% Butt-Touchers, am I fairly represented?
Well, my personal definition, in brief, would be a result that reflects the choice of the majority (or, if there is no majority behind a single candidate, at least the single largest block*) of the voters in a given race, in which all adult citizens had fair and equal access to voting.
For a Congressional midterm, for example, that would mean getting a representative that reflected the preferences of the voters in that district.
You have different representation at different levels. Your... Butt-Touchers Party would presumably be elected by a local Butt-Toucher Representative. However, at the national level, you would either get a President from whichever party squeaked out the most votes*, or, in a Parliamentary system, a PM from a coalition government, most likely.
For a Presidential election, since the President represents the whole nation and we are all supposed to have equal rights, it should, in my opinion, be based on nation-wide popular vote, though I know that many others would disagree.
And again, their are degrees of how democratic or undemocratic a system is. Its obviously not a simple choice of a) Democracy, or b) Despotism.
*I do think that there is a lot of merit to having run-off elections if no single candidate in a given race gets a majority, but I don't consider those a necessity for a system to be considered "democratic".