Perinquus wrote:Under certain circumstances the emplower would be justified in firing the employee for such views. Let's put it this way, if an employee were constantly preaching anti-war propaganda to the customers, then the employer would be justified in firing him. Otherwise, people are free to hold whatever opinions they wish.
Because the employee may be costing the company business by allowing his opinions to alter he way he does his job. How is France harming America by having a different opinion?
The point is, American consumers may want to hit the French in their pocketbook, and thus force the French government to stop opposing U.S. efforts so stridently. Wealthy owners of French vinyards are in a far better position to affect their government's policies than Joe Soap the spot welder at the Ford plant. Why would anyone be that concerned to pressure him to change his views?
The point is, American businesses may want to hit employee dissenters in their pocketbook, and thus force them to stop opposing U.S. efforts so stridently. Voters in America are in a far better position to affect U.S. policy than some foreigners in France. Why would anyone be that concerned to pressure foreigners to change their views?
Labor laws were written for the express purpose of preventing behavior that is held to be unethical.
Correct. Do you understand the ethical justifications for them?
Again, an employee has the right to hold any opinion he wishes.
But a country, apparently, does not.
As long as he is not using his place of work as a forum to express his political views, it would be unethical to fire him for that. The labor laws reflect this, and he would be able to sue for wrongful termination.
And since French businesses are generally not putting antiwar propaganda into their advertising, it would be unethical to boycott them just for having a different opinion.
Mike, this is simply not true. At least not universally. You've heard the phrases "it's a seller's market", or "it's a buyer's market".
Are you telling me that you think there's no such thing as a buyer's market or a seller's market for labour? Please don't tell me you subscribe to Karl Marx's misconceptions of the basic supply/demand nature of the labour market.
Depending on market conditions, the commodity in question, it's scarcity, the demand for it or lack thereof, conditions may favor either the buyer or the seller. If a seller is hawking something that is scarce and for which the demand is high, the conditions will very definitely favor the seller.
See the salaries paid to employees with highly valued skills, vs the salaries paid to employees with poorly valued skills. Supply/demand works there too. You are working awfully hard to establish some great distinction where no such thing exists.
And it's a rather different proposition when, say, I hire a man to roof my house and he quits with the job half done, even though he's taken my money. In such a case, as you say, I can sue for breach of contract.
And what about unfair processes for tendering bids on a job? Companies can and have sued for such things before.
But a customer who has yet to pay for anything may freely opt to do business with someone else, even if he's been doing business with a particular merchant for a long time.
And an employer who has yet to pay for the next year's labour may freely opt to hire someone else, even if the employee has been with the company for a long time. Frankly, this is just too easy.
There's no contract there, not even an unwritten, verbal agreement. It's a simple merchant/customer situation more analagous to whether or not you will chose to buy a television at Sears or at Circuit City. It's not the same thing.
Most employees don't sign a contract either. Do not apply the mentality of unionized workers to the labour market at large.
Not quite as simple as that. The company is bound by law (which were written to reflect practices that are held to be fair and ethical) not be discriminatory in its hiring practices.
And why are those practices fair and ethical? Because it is deemed wrong to penalize people for issues which have nothing to do with their ability to do the job. You don't see how this applies?
I'm simply pointing out that the conditions between employer and employee are different in several ways from the conditions between seller and buyer, and this makes the analogy suspect.
And I'm pointing out that despite your efforts to exaggerate that distinction, the only real distinction is one of scale, and unfairness. Specifically, it is actually MORE unfair to penalize an entire company and its shareholders and all of its employees and all of their families for the opinions of its management, never mind the government of the nation in which they happen to be located.