[Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

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[Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

Post by Surlethe »

Krugman at the NYT
“If we don’t act swiftly and boldly,” declared President-elect Barack Obama in his latest weekly address, “we could see a much deeper economic downturn that could lead to double-digit unemployment.” If you ask me, he was understating the case.

The fact is that recent economic numbers have been terrifying, not just in the United States but around the world. Manufacturing, in particular, is plunging everywhere. Banks aren’t lending; businesses and consumers aren’t spending. Let’s not mince words: This looks an awful lot like the beginning of a second Great Depression.

So will we “act swiftly and boldly” enough to stop that from happening? We’ll soon find out.

We weren’t supposed to find ourselves in this situation. For many years most economists believed that preventing another Great Depression would be easy. In 2003, Robert Lucas of the University of Chicago, in his presidential address to the American Economic Association, declared that the “central problem of depression-prevention has been solved, for all practical purposes, and has in fact been solved for many decades.”

Milton Friedman, in particular, persuaded many economists that the Federal Reserve could have stopped the Depression in its tracks simply by providing banks with more liquidity, which would have prevented a sharp fall in the money supply. Ben Bernanke, the Federal Reserve chairman, famously apologized to Friedman on his institution’s behalf: “You’re right. We did it. We’re very sorry. But thanks to you, we won’t do it again.”

It turns out, however, that preventing depressions isn’t that easy after all. Under Mr. Bernanke’s leadership, the Fed has been supplying liquidity like an engine crew trying to put out a five-alarm fire, and the money supply has been rising rapidly. Yet credit remains scarce, and the economy is still in free fall.

Friedman’s claim that monetary policy could have prevented the Great Depression was an attempt to refute the analysis of John Maynard Keynes, who argued that monetary policy is ineffective under depression conditions and that fiscal policy — large-scale deficit spending by the government — is needed to fight mass unemployment. The failure of monetary policy in the current crisis shows that Keynes had it right the first time. And Keynesian thinking lies behind Mr. Obama’s plans to rescue the economy.

But these plans may turn out to be a hard sell.

News reports say that Democrats hope to pass an economic plan with broad bipartisan support. Good luck with that.

In reality, the political posturing has already started, with Republican leaders setting up roadblocks to stimulus legislation while posing as the champions of careful Congressional deliberation — which is pretty rich considering their party’s behavior over the past eight years.

More broadly, after decades of declaring that government is the problem, not the solution, not to mention reviling both Keynesian economics and the New Deal, most Republicans aren’t going to accept the need for a big-spending, F.D.R.-type solution to the economic crisis.

The biggest problem facing the Obama plan, however, is likely to be the demand of many politicians for proof that the benefits of the proposed public spending justify its costs — a burden of proof never imposed on proposals for tax cuts.

This is a problem with which Keynes was familiar: giving money away, he pointed out, tends to be met with fewer objections than plans for public investment “which, because they are not wholly wasteful, tend to be judged on strict ‘business’ principles.” What gets lost in such discussions is the key argument for economic stimulus — namely, that under current conditions, a surge in public spending would employ Americans who would otherwise be unemployed and money that would otherwise be sitting idle, and put both to work producing something useful.

All of this leaves me concerned about the prospects for the Obama plan. I’m sure that Congress will pass a stimulus plan, but I worry that the plan may be delayed and/or downsized. And Mr. Obama is right: We really do need swift, bold action.

Here’s my nightmare scenario: It takes Congress months to pass a stimulus plan, and the legislation that actually emerges is too cautious. As a result, the economy plunges for most of 2009, and when the plan finally starts to kick in, it’s only enough to slow the descent, not stop it. Meanwhile, deflation is setting in, while businesses and consumers start to base their spending plans on the expectation of a permanently depressed economy — well, you can see where this is going.

So this is our moment of truth. Will we in fact do what’s necessary to prevent Great Depression II?
I've seen claims that the Keynesian fiscal multiplier is between 1 and 2 for spending, so if that's correct and you're looking to jump-start the GDP, deficit spending may not be the way to go. However, if you're looking to limit the human impact of the crisis, spending stimulus employs people right away, while tax cuts take time to employ people as their (greater) effects percolate through the economy.

There are also some important differences between now and the Great Depression -- most notably, the FDIC. I find it doubtful that we're going to lose 30% of our money supply to bank failures in the next two years, since banks are insured and taken over if they're about to collapse. That right there makes comparing 2008 and 1929 apples and oranges.

Also, why is deflation setting in if the Fed is printing oodles of money? Because nobody's lending it out?
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Re: [Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

Post by Admiral Valdemar »

The vast sums in assets far outweigh the number of greenbacks out there. They would have to print faster than ever before to get hyperinflation any time soon. It doesn't help that the money isn't being lent either, making any stimulus plan somewhat useless.

As an aside, the BoE is thinking of cutting rates to the lowest since 1764. There are many economic theorists of the Elliott wave hypothesis that see this as being the end of a Grand Cycle Wave started by the United States gaining independence from the United Kingdom. That would make all of modern banking a giant bubble awaiting a final correction after many spring and winter waves e.g. The Great Depression and subsequent boom years being one winter-spring cycle. The mother of all Kondratiev waves.
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Re: [Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

Post by J »

Bluntly speaking, Krugman is an idiot. Nothing can and nothing will restart the economy unless these steps are taken first. Nowhere does he address the fundamental problems with our economy, and until that's done there is no possible fix other than "aliens give us table top cold fusion and poof all our problems away".
Surlethe wrote:I've seen claims that the Keynesian fiscal multiplier is between 1 and 2 for spending, so if that's correct and you're looking to jump-start the GDP, deficit spending may not be the way to go. However, if you're looking to limit the human impact of the crisis, spending stimulus employs people right away, while tax cuts take time to employ people as their (greater) effects percolate through the economy.
It's below 1 now and dropping. This is very bad, and if the multiplier goes to zero it's game over.
Also, why is deflation setting in if the Fed is printing oodles of money? Because nobody's lending it out?
Yup. It's what my husband calls a grand circle-jerk, Treasury prints up the money and gives it to the Feds who loan it out to the banks, who then deposit the money back at the Fed. You can see this on the 3rd chart of the Fed H3 reports, specifically the column labeled "Reserve Balances with F.R. Banks".

The rest I'll cover later today when I'm not so rushed for time.
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Re: [Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

Post by lukexcom »

J wrote:Yup. It's what my husband calls a grand circle-jerk, Treasury prints up the money and gives it to the Feds who loan it out to the banks, who then deposit the money back at the Fed. You can see this on the 3rd chart of the Fed H3 reports, specifically the column labeled "Reserve Balances with F.R. Banks".
It really looks amazing when dropped into Excel, and the Totals compared to the Reserve Balance w/ FR Banks, with a % ratio thrown in:

Code: Select all

	
         Total
         Reserves      Reserve
         of            Balance
         Depository    with
Month    Institutions  FR Banks    %
Dec-07	42701	      8179	   19%
Jan-08	44065	      7175	   16%
Feb-08	42778	      8147	   19%
Mar-08	42706	      9754	   23%
Apr-08	43506	      9254	   21%
May-08	45111	      9688	   21%
Jun-08	53933	      9181	   17%
Jul-08	44124	      9343	   21%
Aug-08	44134	      9430	   21%
Sep-08	102584	     67173	  65%
Oct-08	314916	     278031	 88%
Nov-08	609506	     571064	 94%
Dec-08	821249	     783540	 95%
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Re: [Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

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Admiral Valdemar wrote:As an aside, the BoE is thinking of cutting rates to the lowest since 1764. There are many economic theorists of the Elliott wave hypothesis that see this as being the end of a Grand Cycle Wave started by the United States gaining independence from the United Kingdom. That would make all of modern banking a giant bubble awaiting a final correction after many spring and winter waves e.g. The Great Depression and subsequent boom years being one winter-spring cycle. The mother of all Kondratiev waves.
I have a hard time wrapping my mind around a 300 year human cycle. I'm not saying it is wrong necessarily, I don't know enough about it to judge, but most human cycles tend to be about the length of a generation, for obvious reasons. It seems far more likely to me that the problem was something unsustainable in Smith's ideas than that for 300 years humans have been consistently doing the same thing despite all the variety in the population and changes over time.
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Re: [Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

Post by Admiral Valdemar »

I should correct myself. It's the lowest since 1694, not 1794. I'd recommend reading the work on this kind of phenomenon. It's quite fascinating if there is a super cycle that takes place over multiple generations.
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Re: [Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

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J wrote:It's below 1 now and dropping. This is very bad, and if the multiplier goes to zero it's game over.
Wrong multiplier. Your link is to the M1 money multiplier, which is a measure of banks' reserve ratios. I'm talking about the amplification of government purchases by the economy -- if Congress passes a $1 trillion stimulus, GDP would probably rise by $1.4 trillion.

As an aside, though, your take on the money multiplier doesn't seem right. The money multiplier is the reciprocal of the reserve ratio; it's not possible for it to drop to zero, and it doesn't make sense for it to be less than 1, since those would imply an infinite reserve ratio (i.e., hold infinite percent of deposits) and a reserve ratio greater than 100%, respectively. The more likely explanation for your graph is that the money multiplier dropped to 1 as banks stopped lending, and what appears to be less than 1 is just statistical noise.
Admiral Valdemar wrote:There are many economic theorists of the Elliott wave hypothesis that see this as being the end of a Grand Cycle Wave started by the United States gaining independence from the United Kingdom. That would make all of modern banking a giant bubble awaiting a final correction after many spring and winter waves e.g. The Great Depression and subsequent boom years being one winter-spring cycle. The mother of all Kondratiev waves.
Is there any particular reason to consider the Elliott wave hypothesis anything more than pseudoscience?
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Re: [Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

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Surlethe wrote:Wrong multiplier. Your link is to the M1 money multiplier, which is a measure of banks' reserve ratios. I'm talking about the amplification of government purchases by the economy -- if Congress passes a $1 trillion stimulus, GDP would probably rise by $1.4 trillion.
Hmmm...so you're looking at the ratio of GDP increase to government spending? Would you happen to have a chart or something where I can look this up and research it?
As an aside, though, your take on the money multiplier doesn't seem right. The money multiplier is the reciprocal of the reserve ratio; it's not possible for it to drop to zero, and it doesn't make sense for it to be less than 1, since those would imply an infinite reserve ratio (i.e., hold infinite percent of deposits) and a reserve ratio greater than 100%, respectively. The more likely explanation for your graph is that the money multiplier dropped to 1 as banks stopped lending, and what appears to be less than 1 is just statistical noise.
Actually it's the M1:M0 ratio, and yes it's entirely possible. Basically, when banks have overdrawn their reserves and owe money to the Fed which they've borrowed from the Fed and deposited right back at the Fed without lending it out, you end up with the unusual situation where M1 is less than M0.
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Re: [Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

Post by Admiral Valdemar »

Surlethe wrote: Is there any particular reason to consider the Elliott wave hypothesis anything more than pseudoscience?
Not particularly, since it's hard to find equivalent records that far back to substantiate a lot of the models. But it does get some good thinking into how trends continue to manifest in such human endeavours like economics. Kondratiev waves would be far more useful given their scale.
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Re: [Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

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J wrote:
Surlethe wrote:Wrong multiplier. Your link is to the M1 money multiplier, which is a measure of banks' reserve ratios. I'm talking about the amplification of government purchases by the economy -- if Congress passes a $1 trillion stimulus, GDP would probably rise by $1.4 trillion.
Hmmm...so you're looking at the ratio of GDP increase to government spending? Would you happen to have a chart or something where I can look this up and research it?
Correct. Basically, if the government deficit-spends $1 trillion (so the contractionary effects of taxation are safely ignored), GDP will initially increase by $1 trillion. But someone (actually, lots of someones) in the economy got that $1 trillion, and they'll spend it, which means that the income of the people they buy from rises, pushing demand up. Those people buy more, which means their suppliers make more, increasing demand more. The cycle will continue, pushing aggregate demand up and consequently increasing GDP. So the question is, what is the ratio of GDP increase to government expenditure? That ratio is the Keynesian spending multiplier. If it's high -- 2 or 3 -- then spending is "good for the economy". If it's low -- near 1 -- then you don't get as much bang for your buck in terms of GDP expansion.

Here is a blog that analyzes, in part this pdf paper. Here is another one.
As an aside, though, your take on the money multiplier doesn't seem right. The money multiplier is the reciprocal of the reserve ratio; it's not possible for it to drop to zero, and it doesn't make sense for it to be less than 1, since those would imply an infinite reserve ratio (i.e., hold infinite percent of deposits) and a reserve ratio greater than 100%, respectively. The more likely explanation for your graph is that the money multiplier dropped to 1 as banks stopped lending, and what appears to be less than 1 is just statistical noise.
Actually it's the M1:M0 ratio, and yes it's entirely possible. Basically, when banks have overdrawn their reserves and owe money to the Fed which they've borrowed from the Fed and deposited right back at the Fed without lending it out, you end up with the unusual situation where M1 is less than M0.
If I'm understanding correctly (dubious), the M1:M0 ratio should be the same as the money multiplier I described. I suppose if banks are borrowing from the Fed, their reserve ratio can increase to more than 100%, but that doesn't make a significant drop under one any more likely, let alone a plunge to zero. After all, a money multiplier of zero means that either M0 has gone to infinity or M1 has gone to zero -- in both cases, banks' borrowing from the Fed will go to infinity. Neither is likely.
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Re: [Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

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The failure of monetary policy in the current crisis shows that Keynes had it right the first time.
This doesn't follow to all. It may be that a third analysis is correct and both Keynes and Friedman were wrong. Given that Keynesianism under FDR made little difference to the country, indeed the depression did not end until WWII and Keynes himself predicted it would simply restart after WWII, I would bet on this alternative.
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Re: [Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

Post by Admiral Valdemar »

Keynes was wrong in the '70s, ergo, he was wrong with his policies full stop. What we're in now is uncharted territory, and you can see both schools of economics are having problems trying to find a way out. That would be because you can't get out of mathematical certainty. If you fuck up, you pay your dues, and what the Fed and other CBs are trying to do is have the highs without the corrective lows of capitalism. That can't happen.
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Re: [Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

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Surlethe wrote:Correct. Basically, if the government deficit-spends $1 trillion (so the contractionary effects of taxation are safely ignored), GDP will initially increase by $1 trillion. But someone (actually, lots of someones) in the economy got that $1 trillion, and they'll spend it, which means that the income of the people they buy from rises, pushing demand up.
Well, aside from the slight problem that you can't take taxation out of the cycle. When the government deficit spends it does so by issuing debt in the form of Treasury bills & notes, these have a coupon and pay interest to the holders. That interest is a tax against the future GDP of the country, and the debt itself adds to the national debt on which there's a debt service charge which must also be paid and is also a tax against the future productivity of the country. We do not have a contraction from taxation in the here and now (unless Japan or China dump their US T-bills) but we will have one in the future unless we can grow GDP faster then the combined growth rate of the interest on the Treasuries and the service charge on the national debt.
If I'm understanding correctly (dubious), the M1:M0 ratio should be the same as the money multiplier I described. I suppose if banks are borrowing from the Fed, their reserve ratio can increase to more than 100%, but that doesn't make a significant drop under one any more likely, let alone a plunge to zero. After all, a money multiplier of zero means that either M0 has gone to infinity or M1 has gone to zero -- in both cases, banks' borrowing from the Fed will go to infinity. Neither is likely.
It's different. M0 is the physical currency in circulation or in bank vaults, though these days it's probably as much electronic as physical. M1 is M0 plus demand deposits, that is checking accounts, traveler's checks, and debit card accounts. This is why the ratio can go below 1 if the banks have their reserve requirements go negative which in effect overdraws the demand deposits and makes them go negative, and then borrow from the Fed to fulfill their reserves requirements. Or something like that, I admit I'm still trying to wrap my head around some of the finer points.
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Re: [Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

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J wrote:Well, aside from the slight problem that you can't take taxation out of the cycle. When the government deficit spends it does so by issuing debt in the form of Treasury bills & notes, these have a coupon and pay interest to the holders. That interest is a tax against the future GDP of the country, and the debt itself adds to the national debt on which there's a debt service charge which must also be paid and is also a tax against the future productivity of the country.
Well, of course; Keynesian spending can only be guaranteed to produce short-run expansion. The assumption buried in any Keynesian policy proposal is that the government will have the balls to slow growth by running a substantial surplus once the economy starts expanding again. As an aside, that's one very pragmatic reason to oppose Keynesianism; governments rarely do that.

In fact, one might write a story about the Keynesian ant and the Friedmanite grasshopper. :wink:
We do not have a contraction from taxation in the here and now (unless Japan or China dump their US T-bills) but we will have one in the future unless we can grow GDP faster then the combined growth rate of the interest on the Treasuries and the service charge on the national debt.
Japan and China are not going to dump their T-bills; the entire world would burn. But as I said above, the point of Keynesianism is to smooth out the business cycle; contraction is postponed until growth is occurring, when growth is slowed from, say, 3% to 1% to pay off our $12 trillion in debt.

Or we just monetarize the debt ... :P
If I'm understanding correctly (dubious), the M1:M0 ratio should be the same as the money multiplier I described. I suppose if banks are borrowing from the Fed, their reserve ratio can increase to more than 100%, but that doesn't make a significant drop under one any more likely, let alone a plunge to zero. After all, a money multiplier of zero means that either M0 has gone to infinity or M1 has gone to zero -- in both cases, banks' borrowing from the Fed will go to infinity. Neither is likely.
It's different. M0 is the physical currency in circulation or in bank vaults, though these days it's probably as much electronic as physical. M1 is M0 plus demand deposits, that is checking accounts, traveler's checks, and debit card accounts. This is why the ratio can go below 1 if the banks have their reserve requirements go negative which in effect overdraws the demand deposits and makes them go negative, and then borrow from the Fed to fulfill their reserves requirements. Or something like that, I admit I'm still trying to wrap my head around some of the finer points.
I think we're saying the same thing, but in different terms. The money multiplier below 1 means that for every dollar printed, less than $1 enters circulation. Since (as I understand) banks' reserve requirements are the chief determinant of how much more than once the monetary base is circulated by lending and lending, what a multiplier of 0.95 means is that for every dollar deposited, banks are keeping a dollar and borrowing some from the Fed.

My guess is that as the bad debt slowly percolates out of the system, the multiplier will stay near 1, since banks won't want to lend, and may be borrowing money from the Fed in the meanwhile.
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Re: [Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

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Surlethe wrote:Well, of course; Keynesian spending can only be guaranteed to produce short-run expansion. The assumption buried in any Keynesian policy proposal is that the government will have the balls to slow growth by running a substantial surplus once the economy starts expanding again. As an aside, that's one very pragmatic reason to oppose Keynesianism; governments rarely do that.
That's leaving aside the other problem, moral hazard, or what will the various groups which comprise the economy do if they know the government will backstop them and help them out in slowdown or downturn? It might take them a business cycle or two to catch on but when they do they'll be doing what the financial industry has done and is in the process of doing. I don't believe it's possible for the government, central bank, or other such entity to prevent or soften business cycle downturns for more than a few cycles at most. Furthermore, there's this...
Japan and China are not going to dump their T-bills; the entire world would burn.
I should hope not, unfortunately I can't rule it out either. If a situation arises where they have to defend the value of their own currencies for whatever reason, they may do so by selling off their foreign reserve holdings and buying their own bills.
Or we just monetarize the debt ... :P
Image It would be funny if we weren't already doing it.
I think we're saying the same thing, but in different terms. The money multiplier below 1 means that for every dollar printed, less than $1 enters circulation. Since (as I understand) banks' reserve requirements are the chief determinant of how much more than once the monetary base is circulated by lending and lending, what a multiplier of 0.95 means is that for every dollar deposited, banks are keeping a dollar and borrowing some from the Fed.

My guess is that as the bad debt slowly percolates out of the system, the multiplier will stay near 1, since banks won't want to lend, and may be borrowing money from the Fed in the meanwhile.
I believe we're describing different money multipliers here. In your earlier post, you confirmed that what you're looking at is the GDP increase to government spending ratio, whereas the monetary base, that is M0 is wholly separate from the government, it's controlled by the Federal Reserve Bank (a private entity) with assistance from the Treasury to sterilize or monetarize the money it hands out.
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Re: [Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

Post by Surlethe »

J wrote:
Surlethe wrote:Well, of course; Keynesian spending can only be guaranteed to produce short-run expansion. The assumption buried in any Keynesian policy proposal is that the government will have the balls to slow growth by running a substantial surplus once the economy starts expanding again. As an aside, that's one very pragmatic reason to oppose Keynesianism; governments rarely do that.
That's leaving aside the other problem, moral hazard, or what will the various groups which comprise the economy do if they know the government will backstop them and help them out in slowdown or downturn? It might take them a business cycle or two to catch on but when they do they'll be doing what the financial industry has done and is in the process of doing. I don't believe it's possible for the government, central bank, or other such entity to prevent or soften business cycle downturns for more than a few cycles at most. Furthermore, there's this...
There are several ways of combating the moral hazard. First, if the government consistently follows a set of countercyclical Keynesian policies, that eliminates the moral hazard: the larger the government backstop during a downswing, the greater the government burden during an upswing. Second, instead of backstopping and pouring money into the financial sector, take stronger steps and fully nationalize the banks that are being backstopped, a la FDIC. That makes failure nearly as unpalatable as if it were accompanied with bankruptcy. Third, instead of spending by propping up failed businesses, the Keynesian policies could take the form of creating new national banks (to be IPOd when the downturn ends) and public sector spending; that way, the banks fail but the economy is still mildly propped up.

Pragmatically, you're probably right: when the government softens its business cycle downturns, it accumulates debt, but when the economy grows, it will refuse to raise taxes and reign in spending, so after several severe downturns the debt burden will be too high for the government to effectively spend. But in principle, I don't think moral hazard is a large problem.
Japan and China are not going to dump their T-bills; the entire world would burn.
I should hope not, unfortunately I can't rule it out either. If a situation arises where they have to defend the value of their own currencies for whatever reason, they may do so by selling off their foreign reserve holdings and buying their own bills.
Possible, but I was under the impression that they peg their currencies already. Anyway, the decision to sell foreign reserve holdings and support their own currency would be subject to the comparison of evils: which is worse for [Japan/China], major US currency devaluation and the accompanying world economic collapse, or devaluation of their own currency.
Or we just monetarize the debt ... :P
Image It would be funny if we weren't already doing it.
I disagree -- we aren't doing that. If we were, we'd be looking at hyperinflation; instead, we're actually on the brink of deflation (as that M1 multiplier you posted showed). This is not 1921 Germany.
I think we're saying the same thing, but in different terms. The money multiplier below 1 means that for every dollar printed, less than $1 enters circulation. Since (as I understand) banks' reserve requirements are the chief determinant of how much more than once the monetary base is circulated by lending and lending, what a multiplier of 0.95 means is that for every dollar deposited, banks are keeping a dollar and borrowing some from the Fed.

My guess is that as the bad debt slowly percolates out of the system, the multiplier will stay near 1, since banks won't want to lend, and may be borrowing money from the Fed in the meanwhile.
I believe we're describing different money multipliers here. In your earlier post, you confirmed that what you're looking at is the GDP increase to government spending ratio, whereas the monetary base, that is M0 is wholly separate from the government, it's controlled by the Federal Reserve Bank (a private entity) with assistance from the Treasury to sterilize or monetarize the money it hands out.
We're talking about two multipliers: the Keynesian multiplier, and the M1 money multiplier. You're confusing discussion threads here. :wink:
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J
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Re: [Op/Ed] Fighting Off Depression

Post by J »

Surlethe wrote:
Japan and China are not going to dump their T-bills; the entire world would burn.
I should hope not, unfortunately I can't rule it out either. If a situation arises where they have to defend the value of their own currencies for whatever reason, they may do so by selling off their foreign reserve holdings and buying their own bills.
Possible, but I was under the impression that they peg their currencies already. Anyway, the decision to sell foreign reserve holdings and support their own currency would be subject to the comparison of evils: which is worse for [Japan/China], major US currency devaluation and the accompanying world economic collapse, or devaluation of their own currency.
Japan doesn't have a currency peg, only China does, but the key here is how a currency peg works. There's two basic ways to do it; a country can buy & sell its own currency along with its foreign reserve holdings to balance the exchange rate or it can declare by fiat what its currency's worth and forbid trading at any other rate. China technically falls into the latter system though in practice it's a hybrid of both, and it's also more of a "floating peg" since it floats within a range with respect to a basket of currencies, it's not locked in at a fixed rate against any one currency anymore.

With regards to the decision to sell, what you've outlined should be the main determinant though there are other factors which may force their hands. For instance a group of FX traders decide to carry out a "bear raid" on their currency which starts a selling panic and cuts the value of the Yen in half. Since Japan just spent all its money on a stimulus package (hypothetically speaking) they now have a serious energy & food import problem, they can either enact harsh austerity measures for the time being or attempt to defend their currency by selling their foreign currency reserves and buying the Yen.

Or we just monetarize the debt ... :P
Image It would be funny if we weren't already doing it.
I disagree -- we aren't doing that. If we were, we'd be looking at hyperinflation; instead, we're actually on the brink of deflation (as that M1 multiplier you posted showed). This is not 1921 Germany.
Monetizing debt is a fancy word for printing up bills to buy up goverment debt (Treasury bonds) and increase M0, or as I like to put it the Treasury & Fed drinking their own special Kool-aid. It's usually inflationary since the M1 multiplier is usually greater than 1 but inflation is not a required condition. Generally when we speak of monetary inflation we're referring to M1 or M2, the broader based currency measures as opposed to M0, the currency base. The US has more than doubled M0 in the last half year, that's a lot of printing (monetization) taking place. The US is attempting to inflate but it can't or won't print fast enough to replace the money that's being sucked into a black hole.
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