The reason I asked Samuel for a justification of his definition of "wrong" was to illustrate that his responses to fuzzymillipede beg the question: he, when fuzzymillipede asked whether morality was objective, replied that measurement of suffering/happiness is in principle possible and hence that morality is in fact objective (think about that for a moment). I agree that whether a given action increases net suffering or happiness is, in principle, objective; the dispute is not over that, but rather whether the resulting method of measuring morality -- as denoted by "right" or "wrong" -- is ultimately arbitrary. The key here is that the symbol "right" connotes more than its definition; it connotes a code of behavior, and it is that code of behavior (which takes the definition of "right" and "wrong" as inputs) which I claim is arbitrary. It is arbitrary because it relies upon (arbitrary) definitions.Feil wrote:"Wrong" and "right" are words, and therefore they are language. Because they are language, they are arbitrary by definition. They can represent any number of objective observables, like how well an action conforms to the teachings of [insert holy book here], or how well an action conforms to what I like, or (as is the case with Samuel's super-simplification of utilitarianism) its net contribution to human suffering or happiness. Pointing out that the word's meaning is arbitrary and then jumping to the conclusion that the thing the word is representing is arbitrary is laughable if you actually think it through - correct me if I'm wrong, but this is what it seems like you're doing. Of course "right" and "wrong" are arbitrary. So is "red".Surlethe wrote:Drawing an analogy to language doesn't help the point that morality is universally something like utilitarianism or secular humanism; billions of people self-consistently reject each others' linguistic definitions by the very nature of speaking different languages.
For instance, someone can say "the definition of wrong is that suffering increases", and build his moral code from that, but I can as easily say "the definition of wrong is that knowledge is not advanced" and build my moral code from that. It's not that whether an action causes suffering or knowledge to increase is arbitrary, but that the foundation of the moral code is arbitrary.
Summary for clarity: you're not interpreting my posts correctly. I'm not saying that the arbitrariness of the choice of object assigned to "right" and "wrong" implies that the object is itself arbitrary; I'm saying that the arbitrariness of the choice of object assigned to "right" and "wrong" implies the arbitrariness of moral code.