How would one eliminate fundamentalism?

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Jonathan
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Post by Jonathan »

BlkbrryTheGreat wrote:I think its very amusing that you state "All that matters is logic and veracity of arguments" while preceding it by stating "There are plenty of people outside of here who agree with me."
Why? I say that the argument that most people disagree is wrong, then I point out that such a way of determining truth is flawed anyway. I do not claim superior numbers as helping me in any way and never have. Numbers are, as I said, irrelevant.
I would also insist that you make a logically valid and true argument on why the Bible should be taken as literal objective evidence, since you did state that "logic and veracity of arugments" is the lone matter by which arguments should be judged. I remind you that failure to do so completely destroys any arguments you might make as to the existence of the God by using the Judeo/Christan/Islamic holy books as evidence for your God's existence.
Funnily enough, that's what I've been doing. Perhaps you missed the posts where I said I was taking some time to compile the evidence? Due to people's impatience, I'm publishing what I have so far.
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Post by Jonathan »

Vympel wrote:Historicity of the Bible?

Let's take the book of Matthew: Herod's slaughter. Not mentioned by any other Gosepl writer,
Mark and John start with Jesus' ministry. they don't mention his birth at all. Luke doesn't contradict it happening.
not mentioned in any contemporary historical work, and not mentioned in Josephus, who examined Herod's life IN DETAIL. You'd think the slaughter of children would be at least MENTIONED in historical texts.

One of your Gospel writers is an out and out liar. There's your historical accuracy for you.
A better way of going about this would be to ask me if there was an explanation first, then giving your conclusion once you've received the evidence, rather than making your conclusion, then reading the evidence.

Bethlehem was a village of a few hundred people. 600 at most probably. So there's not going to be all that many babies. A dozen maybe.

Herod was pretty bloodthirsty - killing a few babies in some backward village wasn't going to get a lot of attention.

Given the non-existence of radio, TV, etc. it would have taken a while for word from this minor village in the black halls of nowhere to come out, by which time people wouldn't really care.
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Post by Jonathan »

Vympel wrote:Oh, and citing someone from the "Trinity Evangelical College" or whatever the fuck it was as an authority was most amusing ...
Oh really? Would you care to share the joke with the rest of us? Bloomberg's credentials are impeccable. He's studied at Aberdeen and Cambrdige universities, works at the respected Denver Seminary and has written a number of well received books. Would you care to point out why he, as a highly respected theologian, who was written extensively on the subject I am citing him as an authority on, should be laughed at?
The fact is we don't know who wrote the Bible- fundie proclamations to the contrary mean sweet fuck all.
Well there's a thought-out, reasoned response to my points. Why don't you point out the flaws in my evidence, instead of swearing and pretending ti doesn't exist?
If Matthew (the tax collector also known as Levi blah blah) wrote the book of Matthew- why does he borrow so much material from Mark- who wasn't even an apostle? Mark was an associate of Paul for a time. The notion that Matthew would have to borrow from Mark is amazing in its stupidity.
Because Mark is writing down what Peter told him and Peter was an apostle. there would have been things he heard or recalled that Matthew didn't. At the very least, it would serve to confirm Matthew's memories and ensure that he was writing accurately. It makes perfect sense to draw on Mark.

In future, ask for evidence before you draw your conclusions. It's a much more logical approach.
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Post by Vympel »

Jonathan wrote:
Mark and John start with Jesus' ministry. they don't mention his birth at all. Luke doesn't contradict it happening.
The argument from silence eh. Most impressive .... :roll:


A better way of going about this would be to ask me if there was an explanation first, then giving your conclusion once you've received the evidence, rather than making your conclusion, then reading the evidence.
Your apologetic nonsense completely fails. First of all, you claim that Bethlehem only had "a dozen" babies- a number you pull RIGHT out of your ass. There were only a dozen male children under two in Bethlehem? And where do you get your 600 figure? From your ass I imagine.

Furthermore, Matthew claims that the cries of the slaughter were heard in RAMAH, which is 20 miles away from Bethlehem. Logically, it must also be heard in Jerusalem. It lies IN BETWEEN Bethlehem and Ramah. Dumbass.

Your line of bullshit also does not deal with the fact that Josephus detailed Herod's other crimes but failed to mention this one. It totally lacks historical corroboration. Many of the crimes described by Josephus were far less "wicked" than the slaughter of the innocents described by Matthew. Had the slaughter actually occurred it would have been an event well known enough for the Jewish historian to have heard of it.

Run along now.
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Post by Vympel »

1- God inspires Jeremiah to prophesy the wholesale slaughter of little children, if we believe Matthew.

2- God sends a star that first leads the Wise Men not to Bethlehem, where Jesus is to be born, but to Jerusalem, where Herod reigns. While in Jerusalem the Not-So-Wise Men tell Herod that the King of the Jews is to be born.

3- After the damage has been done (Herod now knows a king is to be born) God's star leads the Wise Men to Bethlehem.

4- After the Wise Men see Jesus, God warns them not to return to Herod, which prompts Herod to order the prophesied slaughter. (note: obviously, God could have warned them not to go to Herod IN THE FIRST PLACE, thus negating the slaughter. Matthew's omnipotent omniscient being is pretty dumb.)

The wholesale slaughter of innocents while trying to slay some future king is a story so common in myths that it has its own name- The Dangerous Child Myth.

In other words, God actively participates in the slaughter of babies. Smart. Though it wouldn't be out of character, would it?
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Post by Jonathan »

Justforfun000 wrote:That does not in any way show me to be a bigot. there is a completely different essence of points of view between people who accept things on faith OVER logic. A definite believer is going to think that logic must be wrong in favour of their belief no matter HOW well presented. So their own belief system precludes them from being objective. Atheists are by and large very rational people that will accept ANY point of view that can be backed up by logic and evidence. Including claims of religion. So it is a perfectly fair statement.
No it's not. It's assuming that all atheists are rational and logical and that Christians are illogical. You are saying that I am wrong to say that faith and logic are compatible, but are then advising me to listen to atheists when they say that because faith and logic cannot co-exist. Circular reasoning.
Funny that so many people on a board like this that would react like this. It's hardly an objective group. There are plenty of people outside of here who agree with me. Your numbers are irrelevant. All that matters is the logic and veracity of arguments. So far, the bulk of comments have been ridiculing arguments I have not made and deriding attitudes I do not have.
Oh? Now who's making judgements? Why do you think you have the right to claim people on here are not an objective group?
Because of the way that they act. Because they hold an opinion on the subject which therefore makes them no more objective than me.
They have shown nothing BUT objectivity.
That would be funny if you didn't believe it. If they were objective, they would read my arguments and respond intelligently to them, rather than responding with flames to arguments they pretend I have made.
I have already explained how there is still differing viewpoints between members on this board but they still do not reject logic when it is presented to them with a firm backing.
My experience has shown that they would prefer not to see the evidence, instead seeing arguments I have not made. Maybe it's just a misunderstanding, but when you've tried to correct these misunderstandings a dozen times, it gets hard to believe.
Of COURSE there are many people out there who agree with you. the point is WHY they agree with you. Is it because of sharing the same FAITH or because you proved your views?
I can't speak for everyone. A lot of people agree with me because the evidence has lead them to the same conclusion.
As far as ridiculing your arguments, people would not be ABLE to ridicule them if they were intrinsically sound. You repeatedly post premises without foundation and you expect people to accept them as proof. That is why they are being ridiculed. Again, you do not seem to comprehend what constitutes valid proof, or even logical thought in it's entirety.
That's simply not true. A lot of the time I have been attacked, it is over a point I have not made, but that people claim I have. When I challenge people to show where I made the point, I am ignored or just called an idiot.
You demonstrated that is EXACTLY what you believe by your blanket statement above: "Funny that so many people on a board like this that would react like this. It's hardly an objective group."

How would you take that comment? Looks like you are lumping people together into a catch-all category quite nicely to me.
It's similar to saying that everyone here is human. If you hold an opinion on a subject, you're not going to be entirely objective. If you state that something is impossible having previously said that it is impossible to prove or disprove it, then you're certainly not being objective. In fact, you're being self-contradictory.
Well...That may be true for SOME things you have posted. I wouldn't know because I did not read every debate you have been involved in, but from what I HAVE read you are definitely guilty of my last inference regarding many arguments you have posted.
Not true. I suggest you go back and read all the posts here because most of my arguments have been misrepresented from the beginning by other people.
Jonathan. No. Everyone here is listening to you.
See above for some reasons why you are mistaken on that point.
The problem is you are trying to equate the word listen with "agree".
No I'm not. Unless you mean 'agree that i said something' If I call a pen blue and everyone else says I've just called it red, is it unreasonable for me to get annoyed and think they're not listening?
The other problem is that when you are making certain arguments in your favour, you are using both faith-related anecdotes and blanket statements such as the Bible's are backed by more evidence than almost anything in our recorded history. The very vagueness of your claims are why people may be interpreting what you believe by what you are saying. You have to be more cogent and specific in your points to people or they are naturally going to interpret what you say by their understanding of your wording.
I have been quite cogent. Unless I start using one-syllable words, I don't see what the problem is. I say i think I'm as guilty of sin as everyone else and no better than anyone here, then people accuse me of taking the moral high ground and assuming superiority over everyone. I'm not sure how to make that any simpler for people to understand. The problem isn't the words - it's the mindset of the people reading them.

As for the evidence for the bible, I've repeatedly stated that I'm putting the evidence together. I'm very busy however and such a task takes time. You may, however, be pleased to hear that the last article on page 18 contains the beginnings of my evidence.
And you are deliberately fibbing, albeit probably unintentionally, when you claim that people's viewpoints are not more objective than yours.
? You're contradicting yourself and being incredibly cynical there.
You have one big problem with claiming to be objective here. You admit that you believe the bible to be truthful. So anytime there is a conflict between what the Bible says and our known reality,
What 'known reality'? What occasions are you thinking of?
you try to justify it by saying that in some cases it is being poetic or allegorical, and in others it's the fault of translation, and so forth.
Which are all perfectly valid. Whether I am correct or not as a matter of opinion unless you were there at the writing of the bible and know the intentions of the author.
This is NOT being objective because YOUR MIND IS ALREADY MADE UP. Don't you see this? You are stating your arguments from the FOREGONE CONCLUSION that the Bible is inerrant. This is why you are not being objective.
I have come to that conclusion based on evidence. I did not start with it as an unquestionable premise, unlike what others have claimed. Ignore what Wong says about me and read my posts for yourself. The people here have made up their minds and call their opinions facts when they say that it is impossible for the bible to be correct - they do not see any other possible interpretations other than the ones they have drawn. They think that they are the ultimate arbiters of morality and more knowledgeable about historical accuracy than men who have devoted decades to studying the subject. Why can't you see that?

It is my opinion, based on the evidence of history (among other things) that the bible is correct. It is a subjective view, taken as a conclusion from objective sources. I have said in the past that there are other possible conclusion which can be drawn from the objective evidence. I think the other conclusions are wrong, but I acknowledge that it is possible to draw them. the majority of people I have spoken to here say that their conclusion is the only possible one. That is what I have trouble with.
The people here have said quite fairly that they do NOT deride people for having faith in spiritual matters even though they choose themselves not to believe in the possibility. They only ask that you admit that where objective reasoning is possible, you accept that it is the final say because that is only what is sensible. You could drop apples from a tree all day long telling people below that they aren't really hitting them in the head because you believe that God plucked them from the sky before hitting them, but to everyone ELSE you will look like an idiot because the proof is in what is *drumroll* objectively happening.
Actually, if God was dropping them, then that would be the objective reality and your example falls to pieces. The thing is, unless god has said he's dropping them, there's no reason to think he is, which is why they would be an idiot.
This may seem like a trite example, but it is still completely applicable to the difference between faith and reality. Some things are unseen and untestable and therefore are fair game for faith and belief. No scientist in the world worth his salt would argue that they have no right to say you are wrong. But anything that CAN be measured and evaluated by our physical universe IS in their bailiwick and their judgements are supreme.
All a scientist can do is say how he thinks the universe appears to work. He can not ever be certain that that is how to does work. Neither can he by his observations constrain the power of the supernatural. Science has no business dictating to religion. God is not constrained by science. that doesn't mean science isn't useful, it just means that God doesn't have to obey it.
For God's sake man, even from your point of view this is the world God made and the universe he set his OWN laws in. Would you say that he is going to deliberately deceive everyone as to the nature of reality?
As I have said countless times, I do not believe that the universe was made only 6000 years ago. however, I would not regard it as a deception if it had been. God never claimed it was 15 billion years old. It would have to appear pretty old in order to support life. If he'd plonked man down onto a 6 year old world, there'd be no plants or animals to feed him. If plants and animals were created already several years old (and man for that matter), why not the rest of the universe?

I made it quite clear in my application and interview how important my beliefs were to me. Fortunately people here are tolerant enough to think that people here don't discriminate on the bass of belief. Merit and ability are far more important. such a pity the same attitude isn't to be found everywhere in the world, don't you think?
Just because they accept that you have personal beliefs, don't for a second think that they would allow you to use them as an excuse to say something is the way it is because the Bible says so. Try it and see how quickly they insist you learn what your textbooks say instead.[/quote]

As I have said countless times before, ,I do not make scientific claims based on the evidence of the Bible. What is so hard to understand about that? Science models the way the world appears to work. If god says it works a different way, it doesn't matter, as long as our laws and theories still model the way it appears to. There is no conflict. I do not use science to tell me who God is and I do not use God to form scientific theories. Stop acting like I do.
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Post by Vympel »

Jonathan wrote: Oh really? Would you care to share the joke with the rest of us? Bloomberg's credentials are impeccable. He's studied at Aberdeen and Cambrdige universities, works at the respected Denver Seminary and has written a number of well received books. Would you care to point out why he, as a highly respected theologian, who was written extensively on the subject I am citing him as an authority on, should be laughed at?
Because he thinks that the Bible was actually authored by the people which the books are named after. Genius.

If Mark actually wrote the book of Mark, perhaps you'd like to explain why Mark made mistakes about Palestinian geography which no Palestinain could possibly make?!
Well there's a thought-out, reasoned response to my points. Why don't you point out the flaws in my evidence, instead of swearing and pretending ti doesn't exist?
Points? What points? You quoted a dumb-ass. That means nothing. You brought no evidence to the table that they actually wrote the books named after them, and there's good reasons to think that they DIDN'T. Especially considering that whoever wrote Mark knew jack shit about Palestine.
Because Mark is writing down what Peter told him and Peter was an apostle. there would have been things he heard or recalled that Matthew didn't. At the very least, it would serve to confirm Matthew's memories and ensure that he was writing accurately. It makes perfect sense to draw on Mark.
What a bizarre ad hoc rationalization that was. Evidence? Nowhere to be seen. Peter couldn't have made the mistakes Mark did either, genius.
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Post by Jonathan »

Vympel wrote:
Jonathan wrote:
Mark and John start with Jesus' ministry. they don't mention his birth at all. Luke doesn't contradict it happening.
The argument from silence eh. Most impressive .... :roll:
It is not evidence of contradiction.
Your apologetic nonsense completely fails. First of all, you claim that Bethlehem only had "a dozen" babies- a number you pull RIGHT out of your ass. There were only a dozen male children under two in Bethlehem? And where do you get your 600 figure? From your ass I imagine.[/quote

From John McRay PhD, author of Archaeology and the New Testament. the guy National Geographic consult about the Biblical world. Professor at Wheaton College in Chicago. Perhaps you could have asked, rather than slinging mud needlessly? What's wrong with a bit of civility and politeness?
Furthermore, Matthew claims that the cries of the slaughter were heard in RAMAH, which is 20 miles away from Bethlehem. Logically, it must also be heard in Jerusalem. It lies IN BETWEEN Bethlehem and Ramah.
Not true. The verse says:
'A voice is heard in Ramah, weeping and great mourning, Rachel weeping for her children and refusing to be comforted, for they are no more.'

It does not say that the sounds of slaughter carried through the air to Ramah. Rather, it implies that the dead children had relatives in Ramah, who would weep for their death. Quite a different thing.
Dumbass.
That's rather needless. Do you feel you need to resort to insults because of weakness in your arguments?
Your line of bullshit also does not deal with the fact that Josephus detailed Herod's other crimes but failed to mention this one. It totally lacks historical corroboration. Many of the crimes described by Josephus were far less "wicked" than the slaughter of the innocents described by Matthew. Had the slaughter actually occurred it would have been an event well known enough for the Jewish historian to have heard of it.
that's not necessarily true. Given the ruthlessness of Herod and the number of people he killed, there is no reason to expect that every event would have been recorded, particularly given Bethlehem's lowly status.
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Vympel wrote:Because he thinks that the Bible was actually authored by the people which the books are named after. Genius.
He has good reasons for that. It's something he's spent quite a big chunk of his life studying. If he was wrong, don't you think this might have been pointed out to him by other people? Instead, he's taken as an authoritative figure by others, suggesting that most people studying the subject agree with him.
If Mark actually wrote the book of Mark, perhaps you'd like to explain why Mark made mistakes about Palestinian geography which no Palestinain could possibly make?!
Why don't you give me an example, so I can give an explanation. Maybe he didn't actually make mistakes.
Well there's a thought-out, reasoned response to my points. Why don't you point out the flaws in my evidence, instead of swearing and pretending ti doesn't exist?
Points? What points? You quoted a dumb-ass. That means nothing. You brought no evidence to the table that they actually wrote the books named after them, and there's good reasons to think that they DIDN'T. Especially considering that whoever wrote Mark knew jack shit about Palestine.[/quote]

Evidence? You haven't provided any. He's a got a PhD in the subject, having spent several decades studying it.
What a bizarre ad hoc rationalization that was. Evidence? Nowhere to be seen. Peter couldn't have made the mistakes Mark did either, genius.
Wat mistakes? do you have to end every sentence with an insult? What is wrong with my answer? Peter was often closer to Jesus than Matthew. What is therefore wrong with Matthew listening to what Peter recalls? You've failed to point out what is bizarre about my explanation, other than vague allusions to mistakes you claim Mark made, but haven't listed.
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Post by Jonathan »

Vympel wrote:The wholesale slaughter of innocents while trying to slay some future king is a story so common in myths that it has its own name- The Dangerous Child Myth.
So what? It's not an important feature of Christianity. You seem to be missing the point, which is the crucifixion and resurrection. Those are the things that matter. If Jesus died and rose, he should be listened to because he was Lord. If he didn't, then you should ignore him because he as a liar or lunatic. The absence of corroboration on this insignificant point is not good enough reason to disregard Christianity. Even if you throw away Matthew, you've still got the other 3 Gospels to deal with.
In other words, God actively participates in the slaughter of babies. Smart. Though it wouldn't be out of character, would it?
You're assuming he wanted them to die, that that was the purpose of leading the star there. Perhaps the purpose was to give Herod a chance to submit to Jesus and come as a 4th king. We don't know.
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Post by Vympel »

Mark 7:31
Then he [Jesus] return from the region of Tyre, and went through Sidon to the Sea of Galilee

The Sea of Galilee is to the southeast of Tyre while Sidon is to the north of the city. It is simply not possible to go through Sidon from Tyre to reach the Sea of Galilee. What is worse, it is a known historical fact that there was no direct road from Sidon to the Sea of Galilee during the first century CE. There was, however, one from Tyre to the Sea of Galilee. There are thus two geographical errors in the above passage:

Firstly, the author obviously did not know the relative positions of Sidon, Tyre and the Sea of Galilee.

Secondly, he did not know that there was no direct road between Sidon and the Sea of Galilee during the time of Jesus.

Such a widely travelled native of Palestine such as John Mark (as our New Testament sources assure us that he was) could not have made such blatant mistakes about Palestinian geography.

Second:

Another mistake occurred in the episode on the healing of the demoniac. This incident occurred in the region of the Gerasenes, or Gerasa. Mark 5:1 makes Jesus cross the Sea of Galilee to reach Gerasa, implying that Gerasa was a city close to the lake:
Mark 5:1
They went across the lake to the region of the Gerasenes.

Similarly in Mark 5:13 Jesus allowed the demons to leave the man and enter the herd of pigs nearby which then rushed headlong over a precipice into the lake:

Mark 5:13
He [Jesus] gave them permission, and the evil spirits came out and went into the pigs. The herd, about two thousand in number, rushed down the steep bank into the lake and were drowned.

From these readings it is obvious that Mark meant Gerasa to be a town situated near the Sea of Galilee. However look at the map again. Gerasa is more than fifty kilometers to the southeast of the Sea of Galilee!! There is not even a hint of any lake nearby.

Matthew relocates the demoniac to Gadara, which is only six miles from the lakeshore. How amusing.

Again such a basic mistake in Palestinian geography could not have been committed by a well travelled native such as Mark.
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So what? It's not an important feature of Christianity. You seem to be missing the point, which is the crucifixion and resurrection. Those are the things that matter. If Jesus died and rose, he should be listened to because he was Lord. If he didn't, then you should ignore him because he as a liar or lunatic. The absence of corroboration on this insignificant point is not good enough reason to disregard Christianity. Even if you throw away Matthew, you've still got the other 3 Gospels to deal with.
Bye bye Matthew. Bye bye Herod's slaughter nonsense. So why shouldn't I say bye bye to the rest of it? Am I to think that Matthew wasn't 'inspired' but the other books are?
You're assuming he wanted them to die, that that was the purpose of leading the star there. Perhaps the purpose was to give Herod a chance to submit to Jesus and come as a 4th king. We don't know.
Well then God's obviously not omniscient then is he? You are faced with the dilemma of denying an aspect of your deity, or calling him an idiot.
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Post by Vympel »

Jonathan wrote:
It is not evidence of contradiction.
Didn't say that it was. Just found it amusing it's not mentioned anywhere in the Bible, nor anywhere OUTSIDE of the Bible.
From John McRay PhD, author of Archaeology and the New Testament. the guy National Geographic consult about the Biblical world. Professor at Wheaton College in Chicago. Perhaps you could have asked, rather than slinging mud needlessly? What's wrong with a bit of civility and politeness?
He's the one who made the simplistic argument that because there was "no TV" noone would know about it. If the King sent his soldiers to a town (yes, even one of 600) and put all innocent male children under two to death- there would be a wealth of oral evidence and lamentations etc. News DID get around in the ancient world without TV. It also begs the question- how did Matthew know about it?!
It does not say that the sounds of slaughter carried through the air to Ramah. Rather, it implies that the dead children had relatives in Ramah, who would weep for their death. Quite a different thing.
Do you have any idea how stupid that sounds? The universal interpretation is a mother's mourning and weeping, not some relative in a town 20 miles away (and how Matthew came to know about this relative 20 miles away is another question- the obvious answer is that he had to put Ramah in there SOMEWHERE to maintain the semblance of prophecy)

"Rachel weeping for her children and refusing to be comforted, because they are no more"

How do you get a relative somewhere else from that?

Let's also remember that this 'prophecy' was nothing of the sort: the passage in Jeremiah has nothing to do with what supposedly happened in Bethlehem.
that's not necessarily true. Given the ruthlessness of Herod and the number of people he killed, there is no reason to expect that every event would have been recorded, particularly given Bethlehem's lowly status.
Sending soldiers to kill innocent children isn't mentioned anywhere. Other, crimes are. I'm supposed to believe a Dangerous Child Myth with parallels to Moses from a biased Biblical author who doesn't know how to read the Old Testament properly over Josephus?
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Post by Jonathan »

Vympel wrote:Mark 7:31
Then he [Jesus] return from the region of Tyre, and went through Sidon to the Sea of Galilee

The Sea of Galilee is to the southeast of Tyre while Sidon is to the north of the city. It is simply not possible to go through Sidon from Tyre to reach the Sea of Galilee. What is worse, it is a known historical fact that there was no direct road from Sidon to the Sea of Galilee during the first century CE. There was, however, one from Tyre to the Sea of Galilee. There are thus two geographical errors in the above passage:

Firstly, the author obviously did not know the relative positions of Sidon, Tyre and the Sea of Galilee.

Secondly, he did not know that there was no direct road between Sidon and the Sea of Galilee during the time of Jesus.

Such a widely travelled native of Palestine such as John Mark (as our New Testament sources assure us that he was) could not have made such blatant mistakes about Palestinian geography.
I'm curious where are you drawing your sources from? It wouldn't be a crank by the name of Michael Martin by any chance would it? Because In the book I'm reading, world experts shoot those arguments down and show to the author (an adamant atheist at the time) that there was an entirely plausible route from Type to Galilee, through Sidon, taking into account mountainous terrain, probable roads of the region and loose way in which Decapolis refers to a confederation of about 10 cities.
Second:

Another mistake occurred in the episode on the healing of the demoniac. This incident occurred in the region of the Gerasenes, or Gerasa. Mark 5:1 makes Jesus cross the Sea of Galilee to reach Gerasa, implying that Gerasa was a city close to the lake:
Mark 5:1
They went across the lake to the region of the Gerasenes.

Similarly in Mark 5:13 Jesus allowed the demons to leave the man and enter the herd of pigs nearby which then rushed headlong over a precipice into the lake:

Mark 5:13
He [Jesus] gave them permission, and the evil spirits came out and went into the pigs. The herd, about two thousand in number, rushed down the steep bank into the lake and were drowned.

From these readings it is obvious that Mark meant Gerasa to be a town situated near the Sea of Galilee. However look at the map again. Gerasa is more than fifty kilometers to the southeast of the Sea of Galilee!! There is not even a hint of any lake nearby.

Matthew relocates the demoniac to Gadara, which is only six miles from the lakeshore. How amusing.

Again such a basic mistake in Palestinian geography could not have been committed by a well travelled native such as Mark.
This is too funny. These are the exact 2 things I expected you to pull out :^)

Ruins of a town have been excavated at exactly the right point on the eastern shore of Galilee. The English for of the town would be pronounced 'Khersa', but the Hebrew word would have been translated or transliterated into Greek as 'Gerasa'. The town lies int he province of Gedara. No contradiction :^) I strongly suggest you take a look at the book i recommended as it seems to address many of the questions you're asking.
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Post by Jonathan »

Vympel wrote:Bye bye Matthew. Bye bye Herod's slaughter nonsense. So why shouldn't I say bye bye to the rest of it? Am I to think that Matthew wasn't 'inspired' but the other books are?
Have you any reason to doubt the evidence I've given for the other books? And why is lack of corroboration for this particular story sufficient to overwhelm the evidence for Matthew being correct, when it agrees so well on other occasions with the remaining Gospels?
You're assuming he wanted them to die, that that was the purpose of leading the star there. Perhaps the purpose was to give Herod a chance to submit to Jesus and come as a 4th king. We don't know.
Well then God's obviously not omniscient then is he? You are faced with the dilemma of denying an aspect of your deity, or calling him an idiot.[/quote]

False dilemma. God can be omniscient and allow bad things to happen, because he gives us free will.
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Jonathan wrote:
I'm curious where are you drawing your sources from? It wouldn't be a crank by the name of Michael Martin by any chance would it? Because In the book I'm reading, world experts shoot those arguments down and show to the author (an adamant atheist at the time) that there was an entirely plausible route from Type to Galilee, through Sidon, taking into account mountainous terrain, probable roads of the region and loose way in which Decapolis refers to a confederation of about 10 cities.
World experts? Apologists I'm sure- they'll have Jesus trekking through mountains and taking the long way round to get somewhere to make sure that Mark isn't an ignoramus. And Decapolis is a region SOUTH of the Sea of Galilee. There is no way you could go THROUGH it to get there. How this 'loose confederation of ten cities' appears I have no idea. Enlighten me as to this road between Sidon and the Sea of Galilee too.

Ruins of a town have been excavated at exactly the right point on the eastern shore of Galilee. The English for of the town would be pronounced 'Khersa', but the Hebrew word would have been translated or transliterated into Greek as 'Gerasa'. The town lies int he province of Gedara. No contradiction :^) I strongly suggest you take a look at the book i recommended as it seems to address many of the questions you're asking.
And this addresses the point of pigs running into a lake that is km away ... how?
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Have you any reason to doubt the evidence I've given for the other books? And why is lack of corroboration for this particular story sufficient to overwhelm the evidence for Matthew being correct, when it agrees so well on other occasions with the remaining Gospels?
Evidence for Matthew being correct? There is none. He makes a claim for which there is no corroborating evidence whatsoever, not even within the Bible.

"Luke also gives an account of the birth of Christ. He says that there went out a decree from Caesar Augustus that all the world should be taxed; that this was when Cyrenius was governor of Syria; that in accordance with this decree, Joseph and Mary went to Bethlehem to be taxed; that at that place Christ was born and laid in a manger. He also says that shepherds, in the neighborhood, were told of the birth by an angel, with whom was a multitude of the heavenly host; that these shepherds visited Mary and the child, and told others what they had seen and heard.

He tells us that after eight days the child was named, Jesus; that forty days after his birth he was taken by Joseph and Mary to Jerusalem, and that after they had performed all things according to the law they returned to Nazareth. Luke also says that the child grew and waxed strong in spirit, and that his parents went every year to Jerusalem.

Do the accounts in Matthew and Luke agree? Can both accounts be true?

Luke never heard of the star, and Matthew knew nothing of the heavenly host. Luke never heard of the wise men, nor Matthew of the shepherds. Luke knew nothing of the hatred of Herod, the murder of the babes or the flight into Egypt. According to Matthew, Joseph, warned by an angel, took Mary and the child and fled into Egypt. According to Luke they all went to Jerusalem, and from there back to Nazareth."
False dilemma. God can be omniscient and allow bad things to happen, because he gives us free will.
Idiocy. He warned the Wise Men about RETURNING to Herod (thus precipitating the slaughter) but didn't warn them about going there in the first place? There's your free will for you.
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Here's a criticism of the 'Case for Christ' apologetic nonsense in regard to this Sidon Tyre issue- it's very telling of your approach considering the Case for Christ is something of a hero text for you ....
Fundamentalists, when they do not try to argue for the King James reading mentioned in the above note, have largely resorted to "argument from authority" to salvage their beloved doctrine of biblical inerrancy. In other words, "experts (read: fundamentalist apologists) have studied these and found no error" and, presumably, that should be enough for believers.

One example is Lee Strobel's fundamentalist bestseller The Case for Christ. In recounting his interview with John McRay, when the issue of Mark 7:31 was raised, all Strobel could muster to defend Biblical inerrancy here was simply to note that McRay "pulled a Greek version of Mark off his shelf" and opened "large maps of ancient Palestine" and then: Reading the text in the original language, taking into accounts the mountainous terrain and probable roads in the region...McRay traced a logical route on the map corresponding precisely with Mark's description.

"When everything is put into the appropriate context," he concluded, "there's no problem with Mark's account."

And that's it! Without explaining how the route was "logical" and exactly what "Greek text" McRay read, this is supposed to convince readers that the problem is resolved! Needless to say this "argument" fails to convince skeptics.
And these are the 'world experts' you muster to your defense... world experts in shovelling bullshit more like.
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Vympel wrote:
He's the one who made the simplistic argument that because there was "no TV" noone would know about it.
The argument was that news took longer to spread, so by the time it got round, it would have been old and less interesting, especially since it wasn't unheard of for Herod to order such things. There was nothing special about the story, except to Christians because it concerned Jesus.
If the King sent his soldiers to a town (yes, even one of 600) and put all innocent male children under two to death- there would be a wealth of oral evidence and lamentations etc.
Oral evidence lasts quite well for a century or two, but beyond that, unless you've got a lot of very interested people making sure it's kept reliable, it really needs to be written down. By that stage, it's something that happened to great-great-grandparents and the like, and therefore less interesting to people, especially since it was not a particularly uncommon event. And people from that region would not have been in a position to buy papyrus to record the event. There is no reason to assume that oral evidence should have survived by itself to this age.
News DID get around in the ancient world without TV. It also begs the question- how did Matthew know about it?!
That doesn't matter. What matters is whether Matthew is reliable. He is reliable in other cases, so there is no reason to doubt him here if he isn't contradicting anyone else.
Do you have any idea how stupid that sounds? The universal interpretation is a mother's mourning and weeping,
Then why did you claim that ti was the sound of children being slaughtered?
not some relative in a town 20 miles away (and how Matthew came to know about this relative 20 miles away is another question- the obvious answer is that he had to put Ramah in there SOMEWHERE to maintain the semblance of prophecy)
No, that is the cynical, sceptical answer. The obvious answer is that he heard about it and recorded it because it was related to Jesus, while other people not writing the Gospels forgot about it because it wasn't hugely important to them and happened quite a while ago.
"Rachel weeping for her children and refusing to be comforted, because they are no more"

How do you get a relative somewhere else from that?
Children were killed in Bethlehem. Weeping is mentioned in Ramallah. Presumably this is because those killed are related in some way to those in Ramallah. The mothers could have gone to Ramallah to be comforted. It is perfectly in fitting with the passage.
Let's also remember that this 'prophecy' was nothing of the sort: the passage in Jeremiah has nothing to do with what supposedly happened in Bethlehem.


Saying remember implies that it has already been proven that there is no link. No such thing has happened. In fact it is quite likely that Jesus pointed this link out to the disciples while talking to them on the Emmaesus road following his resurrection. He basically went though the entirety of the scriptures and said 'me,' 'me,' 'me,' 'me,' 'me,' in relation to the various prophecies.
Sending soldiers to kill innocent children isn't mentioned anywhere. Other, crimes are.
Absence of proof is not proof of absence. There's no reason to think that Matthew is unreliable, considering how reliable he is with everything else.
I'm supposed to believe a Dangerous Child Myth with parallels to Moses from a biased Biblical author who doesn't know how to read the Old Testament properly over Josephus?
False dilemma. There is a difference between no corroboration and contradiction.
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Not to interrupt this great head-to-head between Vympel and Johnny, but:
Jonathan wrote:And that's a blatant lie. I do not see how it is possible to be a simple misunderstanding as I have repeatedly told you of your error on this point. Yes, I believe the bible to be objective evidence because I believe it to be the word of God and that there is no more objective source than God. However, I do not start with 'it is the word of God' as my premise. I use the evidence of history, which I have posted in part, and the evidence of my own experiences, which are of course not admissible by your standards.
Not admissible by any objective standard. You use a hopelessly laughable logical fallacy to conclude that if any parts of the Bible are corroborated by historical evidence or by anything in your experience, then all of it must be pure literal truth. And your attempt to pretend that Biblical literalism is a conclusion rather than a premise is a circular joke; you have no evidence for Biblical literalism whatsoever apart from the Bible itself.

All that is necessary to disprove Biblical literalism is to find one error in the Bible. It doesn't even matter how minor it is; any error disproves literalism. Your refusal to recognize this fact is your problem, not mine.
Care to point out a stronger argument in that post which I ignored in favour of a so called weaker one? Or is this just rhetoric?
You consistently ignore every attempt to point out the proper definition of objective evidence to you. You evade all such criticisms and repeat your fallacious assumptions that a piece which is partially corroborated by other sources must be literal and true in its entirety, hence it can be considered "evidence". Worse yet, you consider it "objective" even though it is literary and therefore inherently subjective. Indeed, the only Biblical attempts to present any kind of objective data (ie- numbers) are invariably, laughably wrong.
You're a hypocrite and liar for that. I have been seized upon for saying mush less inflammatory things by people here.
Oooh, I hit a nerve, didn't I? Easier to lash out than admit that your incessant claims of how it was "just" to massacre children in Egypt, ethnically cleanse Canaan, commit global genocide in the Flood, exterminate the Midianites, etc. are incredibly inflammatory, and dead serious, unlike the facetious "fundies should all be removed from the gene pool" statements that you pick on.

Indeed, if anyone is a hypocrite here, it's you. You scream bloody murder and accuse people of being Nazis if they think your moronic belief system should be snuffed out, yet you praise a "just" God for exterminating millions of lives.
It is your opinion that the bible is not a valid source of evidence. I believe that the available historical evidence supports the Bible and it is therefore a suitable source of data.
The massive logical fallacy required for this conclusion has been pointed out to you repeatedly, by multiple people. There is much historical evidence to "support" the Koran too; why don't you use that as "evidence"?
You dismiss it without thought and refuse to accept that your opinion is just that - an opinion, which is no more objective than mine. If anything, it is less so, since you say it is impossible to trust the Bible - you say that as if it were an objective fact, rather than a subjective opinion.
You have no idea what "objective" and "subjective" mean, do you? A logical conclusion is as objective or subjective as the evidence upon which it is based. In your case, all of your conclusions about morality, the origins of the universe and life, etc. are based on the Bible as "objective evidence", but the Bible is testimony. Testimony is invariably subjective, even if its authors believe they were telling the truth. In my case, I restrict myself to the use of legitimate scientific evidence, not hearsay testimony. The fact that the Bible is subjective is true by definition. If you don't know what "objective" and "subjective" are, please look it up rather than continuing to make yourself look like an idiot.
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Post by Jonathan »

Vympel wrote:World experts? Apologists I'm sure-
Well qualified and respected theologists who have worked in prestigious universities and written highly thought off books.

[quotes]they'll have Jesus trekking through mountains and taking the long way round to get somewhere to make sure that Mark isn't an ignoramus.[/quote]

No, they'll look at the situation and see if the story recounted by Mark is plausible, which it is.
And Decapolis is a region SOUTH of the Sea of Galilee. There is no way you could go THROUGH it to get there. How this 'loose confederation of ten cities' appears I have no idea. Enlighten me as to this road between Sidon and the Sea of Galilee too.
I don't have maps on hand, or the knowledge of people who have studied the subject for decades. I'm trusting them on this one.
Ruins of a town have been excavated at exactly the right point on the eastern shore of Galilee. The English for of the town would be pronounced 'Khersa', but the Hebrew word would have been translated or transliterated into Greek as 'Gerasa'. The town lies int he province of Gedara. No contradiction :^) I strongly suggest you take a look at the book i recommended as it seems to address many of the questions you're asking.
And this addresses the point of pigs running into a lake that is km away ... how?[/quote]

Because it shows that Gesara was a town in the province of Gedara (the two places quoted) on the shore of Galilee. i.e. there were two towns, one on the shore, one elsewhere. No contradiction.
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Post by Darth Servo »

Jonathan wrote:Absence of proof is not proof of absence.
Ohhhhh boy. I think I'll go hide until the fireworks die down.
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Vympel wrote:Here's a criticism of the 'Case for Christ' apologetic nonsense in regard to this Sidon Tyre issue- it's very telling of your approach considering the Case for Christ is something of a hero text for you ....
One example is Lee Strobel's fundamentalist bestseller The Case for Christ. In recounting his interview with John McRay, when the issue of Mark 7:31 was raised, all Strobel could muster to defend Biblical inerrancy here was simply to note that McRay "pulled a Greek version of Mark off his shelf" and opened "large maps of ancient Palestine" and then: Reading the text in the original language, taking into accounts the mountainous terrain and probable roads in the region...McRay traced a logical route on the map corresponding precisely with Mark's description.

"When everything is put into the appropriate context," he concluded, "there's no problem with Mark's account."

And that's it! Without explaining how the route was "logical" and exactly what "Greek text" McRay read, this is supposed to convince readers that the problem is resolved! Needless to say this "argument" fails to convince skeptics.
And these are the 'world experts' you muster to your defense... world experts in shovelling bullshit more like.
Strobel was a sceptic at the time of the interview. Why would he lie? He's an intelligent guy, so why assume he was fooled? Why not believe him when he says that what he was showed was logical? The evidence was enough to convince a sceptic. But people seem to think we can disregard his integrity and intelligence by labelling him a fundamentalist now. It's people disregarding the evidence because they don't want it to be true.
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Post by Vympel »

Jonathan wrote:
That doesn't matter. What matters is whether Matthew is reliable. He is reliable in other cases, so there is no reason to doubt him here if he isn't contradicting anyone else.
What bullshit. It doesn't matter as to how Matthew came to discover this? In what other cases is he reliable? Where he has Jesus get two animals to ride on instead of one like the other Gospels?
Then why did you claim that ti was the sound of children being slaughtered?
Hasty error.
No, that is the cynical, sceptical answer. The obvious answer is that he heard about it and recorded it because it was related to Jesus, while other people not writing the Gospels forgot about it because it wasn't hugely important to them and happened quite a while ago.
:roll: "Hey Mark this woman was crying many many years ago, remember when Herod had all those babies slaughtered?"

Mark: "Great Scott! The prophecy of Jermiah!!!!!"- Even though the prophecy of Jermiah is not about dead babies, it's about a jewish diaspora, the slaughter happened in bethlehem, not ramah, and there's noone called Rachel anywhere.
Children were killed in Bethlehem. Weeping is mentioned in Ramallah. Presumably this is because those killed are related in some way to those in Ramallah. The mothers could have gone to Ramallah to be comforted. It is perfectly in fitting with the passage.
You mean it's perfectly fitting with the pre-concieved notion that the Bible must be true in all things, so we must therefore make the mothers of the dead children travel 20 miles to another town to speak of their tragedy, assume that noone in Ramah thought much of their story of the slaughter of innocents, yet somehow Matthew came to know about it and reported it, even though Luke didnt. Right.
Saying remember implies that it has already been proven that there is no link. No such thing has happened. In fact it is quite likely that Jesus pointed this link out to the disciples while talking to them on the Emmaesus road following his resurrection. He basically went though the entirety of the scriptures and said 'me,' 'me,' 'me,' 'me,' 'me,' in relation to the various prophecies.
Objection. Assumes facts not in evidence. It is not quite likely at all. Jesus said he would rise on the third day as it is written ... there's no such prophecy.
Absence of proof is not proof of absence. There's no reason to think that Matthew is unreliable, considering how reliable he is with everything else.
You idiot. Burden of proof fallacy right there- you are asking for the proof of a negative. YOU must provide the evidence. Matthew's reliability is guaged by what standard now?
False dilemma. There is a difference between no corroboration and contradiction.
Except that I have a historian on one side who cataloged Herod's crimes extensively and someone who's account doesn't even jibe with Luke.
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Post by Jonathan »

Darth Servo wrote:
Jonathan wrote:Absence of proof is not proof of absence.
Ohhhhh boy. I think I'll go hide until the fireworks die down.
Wuss. Watching this will make a man out of you ;)
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