Let me just be clear on what you’re asking me. If there was nothing in Christian belief that led to Hitler’s anti-semitism, why, after he had those beliefs, did he attempt to import elements from other areas to support them? That’s what people do. They accept an idea, and fit it into other parts of their world-view. The first Christians accepted the idea of Jesus’ divinity, and sought to fit it into the Old Testament. Early modern Christians took the idea of “natural law”, and tried to superimpose that on the New Testament. Modern politicians conceive of an idea for pragmatic or selfish reasons, and then seek ideological justification. I quoted Churchill before, who is just one of hundreds of politicians who have claimed divine support or justification for their deeds, without that being their source. Even stronger (and not quite analogous, I know), the slogan “for God and Country” has been used interminable times by politicians and generals who didn’t believe a word of it.It had lots to do with his Christian belief. Sure, a particular form of that belief, but nonetheless, moron. You moved the goalposts, not I did. If there was nothing in Christian belief that pushed Hitler's motivation, how the fuck do you explain him using the Creation myth to build up his version of anti-Semitism and integrate it heavily with religion?
In many cases, it’s hard to know what someone’s motivations are for an action. Hitler’s, however, are not. He tells us openly and plainly in Mein Kampf how he became an anti-semite, what he considered the basis of his anti-semitism, and that he repudiated the theoretical basis and ideal solution of Church anti-semitism. None of the principle features of his anti-semitism have any congruence to historic, Christian anti-semitism. You wave his Aryan!Jesus as a proof, but in fact it’s entirely the reverse – so removed was his anti-semitism from historical models that he had to re-invent classical Christian motifs in a way that the Church had never done.
But was black slavery based on the Hamite tale? Did early slavers think that blacks were the descendants of Ham, and thus should be slaves! Of course not – once black slavery was established, it needed religious legitimization, because religion was a very important part of people’s belief system. But the Biblical proofs began after the slave trade was an established fact. So too with Hitler – his anti-semitism was based on racial and nationalist grounds, and then he sought support for it elsewhere. Even later, and it is to this is that I presume you were referring, the pseudo-religious justification for slavery became a major tool of pro-slavery polemics. But from the beginning of the slave trade to the emergence of the “Hamites” as a prominent justification was centuries. Maybe if Hitler had won WW2 (or rather, had won by not fighting it!), then doubtless German children today would be taught about Aryan!Jesus and all the rest. But your cause and effect is muddled – first Hitler was an anti-semite for non-religious reasons, then he sought to justify it in religion.This precent isn't also uncommon for Christianity. The Hamite tale has been a justification for black slavery