The Peace of Riga - how bad was it?
Posted: 2011-12-19 01:36am
Obscure historical topic, since I've been playing a boardgame on the Soviet-Polish War and I've been arguing in another forum about the topic:
Just how harsh was the Peace of Riga for the Soviet Union? I'm aware that the Soviets lost about 135K square kilometers of land from Ukraine and Belorussia to Poland because of the treaty, but was it considerably worse than say the Treaty of Versailles?
From my understanding, the treaty was signed because both the Poles and the Soviets wanted a breather. The Soviets were still in the middle of the civil war, while the Poles had suffered heavy losses and had almost been defeated outright at some point in the Polish-Soviet War. While the Soviets were not exactly pleased about losing big bits of land, they weren't under huge duress to sign the treaty like the Germans were in the Versaille treaty.
In fact, the Soviets didn't seem so sore about the treaty in the years after it was signed: They eventually signed a Non-Aggression Pact with the Poles in 1932. When the Soviets backstabbed the Poles in 1939 alongside Germany (c/o the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact), they didn't make "recapturing Soviet territories lost in the Peace of Riga" their official casus belli; unlike the Germans who publically stated they wanted Danzig back after losing it due to signing the Versailles treaty.
So... are there any other aspects about the treaty that I may have missed that crippled the Soviet state in some major way, which would justify them invading Poland in 1939? Or is the idea that the Soviets invading Poland in 1939 over the terms of this treaty really just as preposterous as Germany invading Poland in 1939 over Danzig (which is my position)?
Just how harsh was the Peace of Riga for the Soviet Union? I'm aware that the Soviets lost about 135K square kilometers of land from Ukraine and Belorussia to Poland because of the treaty, but was it considerably worse than say the Treaty of Versailles?
From my understanding, the treaty was signed because both the Poles and the Soviets wanted a breather. The Soviets were still in the middle of the civil war, while the Poles had suffered heavy losses and had almost been defeated outright at some point in the Polish-Soviet War. While the Soviets were not exactly pleased about losing big bits of land, they weren't under huge duress to sign the treaty like the Germans were in the Versaille treaty.
In fact, the Soviets didn't seem so sore about the treaty in the years after it was signed: They eventually signed a Non-Aggression Pact with the Poles in 1932. When the Soviets backstabbed the Poles in 1939 alongside Germany (c/o the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact), they didn't make "recapturing Soviet territories lost in the Peace of Riga" their official casus belli; unlike the Germans who publically stated they wanted Danzig back after losing it due to signing the Versailles treaty.
So... are there any other aspects about the treaty that I may have missed that crippled the Soviet state in some major way, which would justify them invading Poland in 1939? Or is the idea that the Soviets invading Poland in 1939 over the terms of this treaty really just as preposterous as Germany invading Poland in 1939 over Danzig (which is my position)?