Star Wars version of Prime Directive?

[Elfdart]

And good point about the futility of trying to enforce a Prime Directive in the GFFA. I always thought it would have been futile in ST, too.

[Sarevok]

I'm not looking for anything to be proved or disproved. One person speculated and came up with an idea. I came up with one of my own. I'm open to the idea that my theory could be 100% bullshit. But it's no less plausible than anyone else's.

It is less plausible. Others refuted your theory very nicely.

[Elfdart]

In what way is my idea less plausible?

[SirNitram]

In what way is my idea less plausible?

Are you acquainted with logic at all? You know, things like the principle of Parsimony?

[Elfdart]

Yes I'm familiar with Mr. Ockham and his razor. I'm also familiar with H.L. Mencken who wrote that there is usually an answer: "neat, plausible and wrong". The goal is to find the right answer.

The question (since the Prime Directive in Star Wars is as useless as a football bat) is: Does C-3PO's ability to partially converse with aliens on a remote body mean that there was extensive intervention by the Republic/ Empire (what the PD prohibits) on that body (Endor)?

Here are the answers so far:

1) Yes, there must have been major intervention.

2) No, any contact was small-scale.

3) No, there was no contact whatsoever before the DS2 project.

All three (and I'm sure there are more) are possible and none is inherently more complicated than the others. What does parsimony have to do with this. Don't use Ockham's razor as an excuse for lazy debating.

[SirNitram]

Ah yes, it's 'lazy debating' to toss out unobserved unknowns. I'm sure you don't claim that they were taught this by an invisible teleporting Krayt dragon, despite it having the same basis as your claim.

[Ghost Rider]

Here are the answers so far:

1) Yes, there must have been major intervention.

How and why...Endor was known by both the Empire and Republic, and the Alliance. The EU never indicateed by what lengths they knew of the inhabitants and knew of the planet thus it was slotted and categorized and left to be because there was nothing there except a primitive species with no inherent worth and no significant resources.

2) No, any contact was small-scale.

Most likely answer since Endor was known.

3) No, there was no contact whatsoever before the DS2 project.

Nice to see bullshit is still here given they say they know of Endor prior to the DS2 project once in the novels and multiple times in the EU.

So let's see.

1. Trumped up shit that does not make sense with current information.

2. Most likely to fit with current information

3. Bullshit and contradicts Offical.

So tell me which do you think Parsimony favors?

[Elfdart]

I was only going by the movies, not the EU.

I also think #2 would be the most likely answer. Does this mean the other answers are "bullshit"? No.

[Ghost Rider]

I was only going by the movies, not the EU.

I also think #2 would be the most likely answer. Does this mean the other answers are "bullshit"? No.

Oh let's see in the novelization of the movies.

Endor is considered a back water world but is known.

So what you only want to do movies to satisfy your own personal secular view of how SW works?

Best of luck to you and your singular POV.

[Kurgan]

Maybe the Ewoks are a break-away sect of a larger modern culture, perhaps like the Amish.



Well, just thought I'd throw that random idea in there. ; )

[Sarevok]

If that was the case the Ewoks parent civilization would have been mentioned in the EU.

[Kurgan]

Well that's assuming the EU has an exhaustive list of every type of alien and civilization in the entire multi-galactic area....


Some secrets are still being revealed (ie: Jawa Juice)!

[Lord Pounder]

Wasn't the Ewok movie set before RotJ? If thats the case we have a MOVIEshowing contact and communication with the Ewoks.