Personally, I think it ends at the beginning:Darth Wong wrote:Falcon, your "logic" rests on the premise that if some Palestinians do bad things, it's OK to brutalize all of them. Shoot their kids for throwing rocks, treat them like animals, humiliate them daily at checkpoints, bulldoze their homes with no compensation, even limit the amount of fresh water they get to drink.
Does it occur to you that this premise could be just as easily applied to the opposite parties? A Palestinian could just as easily say that because some Israelis shoot unarmed kids in the street, destroy peoples' homes, shoot people at checkpoints and generally terrorize them by shoving guns in their faces with little or no provocation, and deny them the necessities of life such as an adequate fresh water supply, it's OK to brutalize all of them.
So where does this end?
1820 and earlier: Jewish - Arabian relations were pretty good. Compared to Jewish - European realtions. Of course, that's like vasectamies are pretty fun compared to a brutal ass raping. Also, it's important to note that there were very few Jews in the Middle East at the time.
1820: Jews first attempt mass immigration into the area. They first bought unoccupied land and then legally bought land from Arabs. At the turn of the century, Mark Twain noted that the area was still, 'in desperate need of population'. So it's hardly fair to saw the Jews were displacing the Arabs.
1917: First international attempt to create a Jewish homeland. Arabs look at this as an oppurtunity to strengthen their cultural and religious bond with the Jews. Just kidding, they killed hundreds in riots over the next decade. It's important to note at this time the Arabs controlled the area. No Jewish oppression, no western aid, nothing. Nonetheless, an area of land under British control was set aside for the creation of two independent states. 77% was to became Transjordan, for the Arabs. 23% was to become Palestine, for the Jews. And Palestine was not the lush green space it is now,
1929-1938: More Jewish immagration, more Anti-Jewish riots.
1939-1945: WWII. More than 10,000 Jews fought in the Middle East for the Allies. Once even tried to fly the Star of David as a their flag. The British quickly disbanded them and spread the Jewish Soldiers throughout the area. On the other hand, the countries like Saudi Arabia has arms deal with the Axis and only declared war in early 1945, when the Nazi defeat was clear.
May 14, 1948: Israel is formed. Several Arab Nations decided it would be a good plan to attack immediately to destroy it. The plan backfired and Israel increased it's size by 50% by the time the cease fire was signed in Jan. 7, 1949. Note: I'm not going to discuss the division of land or the refugee issue at this time. I feel it is outside the scope of this essay.
Now, up to this point there has been no Israel, and therefore, no Israeli oppression. Yet there were attacks against Jews. So logically, you can't blame these attacks on Jewish oppression, like some people are doing today.
1949-1967: The Palestinan population is divided into two section
Those Living under Israeli Rule: They live with greater freedoms and standard of living than any other Arab population in the Middle-East. Granted, they don't have all the rights of Jews, but their rights are comparible to Blacks living in the US at the same time. No significant attacks comes from this population.
Those Living under Arab Rule in the Gaza Strip and West Bank: Treated like crap by the other Arabs, and live like dogs. In response, they kill Jews.
Again, Jewish actions can not be the direct cause of Jewish deaths. They aren't the ones oppression the Palestinians.
1967 and on: My ride just showed up so I have to cut this short. Jewish action are being blamed as the direct cause of Jewish deaths. Even though, similar deaths previously were not caused by Jewish actions. It is more logical to say that the Islamic religion's hatred of non-muslims is more like the direct cause and Jewish actions are a convienent excuse.