I got into a debate and this came up.
The basic gist of the argument my opponent was using is:
"A has never been subjected to attack B, therefore A has no defense against B"
This seems like a fallacy to me, but I can't identify it.
What fallacy is this?
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That's like saying a modern day battleship has never been attacked by bows and arrows before, therefore it has no defences against bows and arrows.
This strikes me as a non-sequitar, ie it doesn't follow. However all fallacies can most likely be broken down into non-sequitars.
This strikes me as a non-sequitar, ie it doesn't follow. However all fallacies can most likely be broken down into non-sequitars.
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Re: What fallacy is this?
Fallacy of unstated premise. The logic works if you assume that B is particularly dangerous to A, so that the burden of proof is upon anyone who would say that A can survive B.OmegaGuy wrote:I got into a debate and this came up.
The basic gist of the argument my opponent was using is:
"A has never been subjected to attack B, therefore A has no defense against B"
This seems like a fallacy to me, but I can't identify it.
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"you guys are fascinated with the use of those "rules of logic" to the extent that you don't really want to discussus anything."- GC
"I do not believe Russian Roulette is a stupid act" - Embracer of Darkness
"Viagra commercials appear to save lives" - tharkûn on US health care.
http://www.stardestroyer.net/Mike/RantMode/Blurbs.html
Re: What fallacy is this?
Just point out that there's no more evidence for that position than if you said "B has never been seen to have any effect on A, therefore B is totally ineffective against A."OmegaGuy wrote:I got into a debate and this came up.
The basic gist of the argument my opponent was using is:
"A has never been subjected to attack B, therefore A has no defense against B"
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