UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later died.

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UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later died.

Post by Hillary »

The basic facts are that, during the G20 summit, Ian Tomlinson was walking home from his job (not a protestor) and was attacked without any provocation by a policeman. This was captured on film and the officer responsible identified, despite the fact that he had illegally removed his badge and covered his face. The man later died.

No charges are to be brought against the officer concerned. In addition the investigation has taken so long that he cannot now be prosecuted for assault as it is "out of time".

Here's the link to the story and the video of the assault.
BBC wrote:The widow of a man who died after being pushed over by a police officer at the G20 protests in London has said her family "can't give up on justice".

Charges will not be brought against the officer as pathologists could not agree why Ian Tomlinson, 47, died at the demonstrations in April 2009.

Julia Tomlinson said the Crown Prosecution Service's (CPS) decision was "a scandal".

The Metropolitan Police has expressed "regret" to Mr Tomlinson's family.

The CPS announced on Thursday it would not be bringing any prosecution, having looked at charging the officer with various offences including assault and manslaughter.

But Mrs Tomlinson said her family were not "going to walk away from this", adding: "What message would it send to the police if we do?

"We don't see how Ian can die moments after being assaulted by the police officer and he isn't made to face a jury."

Mr Tomlinson was a newspaper seller who was not involved in the protests about the summit.

Video footage showed him being apparently struck by a baton and then pushed to the ground.

Although he moved on afterwards, he was then found collapsed on Cornhill, 100 metres away.

The first post-mortem examination of him - conducted by Dr Freddy Patel - found he was killed by a heart attack.

Dr Patel faces a misconduct hearing over four separate examinations.

Two other pathologists later said he died from internal bleeding caused by blunt-force trauma.

The CPS said this discrepancy jeopardised the chance of obtaining a conviction for manslaughter and an assault charge could not be brought as this had to happen within six months of any incident.

Mr Tomlinson's family have told their legal team to review the prosecutors' decision.

"Our preliminary view is that the decision is flawed," said a statement from Tuckers Solicitors, which represents the Tomlinsons.

"The CPS stated yesterday that their decision would be 'reconsidered' at the conclusion of the inquest.

"It may be that we determine that the appropriate time to challenge the CPS decision is if they again reject the possibility of a charge at that stage."

The Met has said the forthcoming inquest would ensure "the facts will be heard publicly" and it would consider misconduct proceedings once an Independent Police Complaints Commission investigation had been held.
More background (and opinion) on the story here
The Guardian wrote:Hundreds of thousands of us have now seen the footage of the newspaper-seller shambling peacefully home from work. We've seen how, without warning or provocation, PC Simon Harwood attacked him from behind, hitting him with a baton then shoving him to the ground. We know that the officer had unlawfully removed his badge, and that his face was obscured by a balaclava. We know that, a few minutes afterwards, Ian Tomlinson collapsed and died. We also know that the Metropolitan police lied about his death to the media and to Tomlinson's family.

Fifteen months later the director of public prosecutions, Keir Starmer, decides that "there is no realistic prospect of a conviction against [Harwood] for any offence arising from the matter investigated and that no charges should be brought against him". The evidence for his role in Tomlinson's death, Starmer says, is contradictory, and the time limit for pressing lesser charges has sadly expired. Starmer provides no convincing explanation of why it has taken him so long to make his decision, or of why a jury should not be allowed to make its own assessment of the evidence.

Now picture the opposite case: a civilian launching an unprovoked attack on a policeman, captured on film, which is immediately followed by the policeman's death. The Crown Prosecution Service ponders and dithers before deciding that the assailant should get away scot free. Implausible? You have just understood that in the United Kingdom equality before the law exists only in textbooks.

The excuse Starmer gave is that conflicting medical evidence means that a causal link between the assault on Tomlinson and his death could not be proved beyond reasonable doubt. It is true that the evidence is not consistent. But nor is its quality.

Starmer's decision not to prosecute PC Harwood rests on the first autopsy, conducted by the pathologist Dr Freddy Patel. Other pathologists have expressed astonishment that Dr Patel was chosen for this case. A Home Office standards committee had already ruled that he had not maintained professional standards in three other cases, after he had failed to detect what appeared to be clear evidence of injuries. He is facing a disciplinary hearing before the General Medical Council for alleged incompetence in 26 cases.

This isn't the first run-in he has had with the council. In 1999 he was reprimanded by the GMC for speaking to reporters about the death of a man in police custody that he was investigating, and making an unsupported allegation against him. It looked like an unwarranted attempt to help the police out of a tricky situation.

Patel decided that Tomlinson died naturally. But he found three litres of fluid in Tomlinson's abdominal cavity. His notes initially suggest that this was blood. He disposed of the fluid. Then he changed his notes to suggest that it wasn't blood but something else. Two subsequent postmortems, conducted by far more eminent pathologists, both concluded that Tomlinson died of internal bleeding consistent with his body hitting the pavement.

We don't yet know why Patel was chosen to conduct the first autopsy, but it is widely believed he was recommended to the coroner by the City of London police. The police have refused to comment. Why could a jury not have been allowed to decide which autopsy, and which pathologists, it trusted?

This is a moment in which the pomp and majesty of the law falls away to reveal a squalid little stitch-up. In years to come you will hear Keir Starmer's decision mentioned alongside the Widgery report, the Hutton report and the failure to prosecute the killers of Blair Peach and <a href="http://www.guardian.co.uk/uk/menezes" title="Jean Charles de <00ad>Menezes">Jean Charles de Menezes. The Tomlinson whitewash will be seen as one of British officialdom's most notorious swindles.

The difference in this case is that, thanks to citizen journalism and the Guardian's investigation, we have unequivocal footage of what happened to the victim. We also know that the Independent Police Complaints Commission, which made its own assessment of the evidence, found that the case was strong enough to warrant prosecuting PC Harwood for manslaughter. This time the Crown Prosecution Service cannot hide behind police lies about what happened. We know what happened: we've seen it. This makes the stitch-up even more infuriating and obscene.

So what can be done? Ian Tomlinson's family doesn't have the money to mount a private prosecution. But could we not raise it for them? I would welcome some advice about how much would be needed and how it could best be found. But right now our duty as citizens is to raise Cain: to show that we will not accept such blatant inequality before the law. If not now, when?
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

Post by Stofsk »

lol the UK prosecution are bunch of spineless cowards. Last I heard there was no statute of limitations on murder. And the initial pathologist attempted to cover it up by calling it a heart attack - that's perverting the course of justice.
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

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So... is do you have an actual opinion on this, or are you just reposting articles for our convenience?
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

Post by Sinewmire »

I was bloody furious when I heard about this, and I'm pretty disgusted now. It's shit like this and Jean-Charles de Menezes that made me lose the respect for the Police I had when I was younger and assumed they were actually there to protect us. It's rather disillusioning.
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

Post by Kamakazie Sith »

Stofsk wrote:lol the UK prosecution are bunch of spineless cowards. Last I heard there was no statute of limitations on murder. And the initial pathologist attempted to cover it up by calling it a heart attack - that's perverting the course of justice.
I'm not familiar with UK law, but I'm pretty sure this is not murder. Murder is the intentional unlawful killing of another person. You would have to prove that the UK officer intended to kill the victim which is pretty hard to do under these circumstances.

Now, there's probably not a statute of limitations of the equivalent of manslaughter.
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

Post by Hillary »

SancheztheWhaler wrote:So... is do you have an actual opinion on this, or are you just reposting articles for our convenience?
I thought by the thread title and my description of the events that my view on this was pretty fucking obvious.

Or should I have have posted "OMFG, it's a travesty of justice. Police are above the law and we're all going to die" in a large, pink font?

Plenty of people post stuff on N&P without commenting. Do YOU have an opinion or are you just flaming?
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

Post by Sinanju »

Kamakazie Sith wrote: Now, there's probably not a statute of limitations of the equivalent of manslaughter.
There isn't, but from the article it seems that they'd have trouble making the prosecution for manslaughter stick thanks to this Dr. Patel's fuck-up.

Because the defense is almost certain to be centered around the idea that, well, he could have died of a heart attack after being struck by the officer, so Harwood couldn't possibly have foreseen that. Whether it's horseshit or not (and before anyone jumps on me, I do think it's shit).

EDIT: Stuck a quote tag in for clarity.
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

Post by Hillary »

Sinanju wrote:
Kamakazie Sith wrote: Now, there's probably not a statute of limitations of the equivalent of manslaughter.
There isn't, but from the article it seems that they'd have trouble making the prosecution for manslaughter stick thanks to this Dr. Patel's fuck-up.

Because the defense is almost certain to be centered around the idea that, well, he could have died of a heart attack after being struck by the officer, so Harwood couldn't possibly have foreseen that. Whether it's horseshit or not (and before anyone jumps on me, I do think it's shit).

EDIT: Stuck a quote tag in for clarity.
I think this is a bit besides the point. As is said in the Grauniad article I posted, had a member of the public assaulted a police officer who died soon afterwards , do you believe that the CPS would have said "nope, we'll never make it stick - no charges"?
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

Post by Kamakazie Sith »

Sinanju wrote:
There isn't, but from the article it seems that they'd have trouble making the prosecution for manslaughter stick thanks to this Dr. Patel's fuck-up.
Right. The problem is those kind of mistakes also happen during civilian on civilian crimes. I understand what it looks like when it involves a police officer, but I think it is important to maintain perspective. A full investigation is certainly warranted to see if Dr. Patel missed a rather obvious sign that could only be explained by intentional incompetence.
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

Post by Kamakazie Sith »

Hillary wrote:
I think this is a bit besides the point. As is said in the Grauniad article I posted, had a member of the public assaulted a police officer who died soon afterwards , do you believe that the CPS would have said "nope, we'll never make it stick - no charges"?
Yeah, why wouldn't they. You see the evidence was fucked up so their case for manslaughter was completely destroyed. As for a lesser charge like assault...the statute of limitations had passed. Unless the defense is incompetent and the judge an idiot there's no way they could get by that.

That's assuming events played out exactly the way they did. You could certainly argue that the prosecution engaged in intentional incompetence...
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

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Kamakazie Sith wrote:
Stofsk wrote:lol the UK prosecution are bunch of spineless cowards. Last I heard there was no statute of limitations on murder. And the initial pathologist attempted to cover it up by calling it a heart attack - that's perverting the course of justice.
I'm not familiar with UK law, but I'm pretty sure this is not murder. Murder is the intentional unlawful killing of another person. You would have to prove that the UK officer intended to kill the victim which is pretty hard to do under these circumstances.
Not necessarily. Perhaps we are both showing our knowledge of our individual legal systems. Here, murder is as you say, but with the added factor that you may have only intended to really seriously injure someone, but if death results from your act, then that's murder. So in this scenario, the police officer may not have intended to kill the victim, but he did intend to cause him harm, and so as death resulted it would be considered murder here. Since Australian criminal law is derived from Britain, I just assumed the above principles would be applicable there as it is here, though of course there would be some differences, but I doubt they'd be totally different. Commonwealth countries have more in common with British law than say America does.

Though the unintentional part would open it to examination at a hypothetical trial, and that might mean manslaughter would be left as an alternative verdict for the jury to consider.
Now, there's probably not a statute of limitations of the equivalent of manslaughter.
Agreed. Also, I think it's disingenuous for the CPS to claim the initial pathology has tainted the prospect of getting a conviction for murder/manslaughter. Two subsequent pathologists provided a differing account for the victim's cause of death, which can mean the initial pathologist was either deliberately obfuscating the process (hence why I said that's perverting the course of justice) or was so incompetent that he didn't detect the signs the next pathologists discovered. Using the first pathologist as an excuse not to proceed strikes me as absurd.
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

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Stofsk wrote:Not necessarily. Perhaps we are both showing our knowledge of our individual legal systems. Here, murder is as you say, but with the added factor that you may have only intended to really seriously injure someone, but if death results from your act, then that's murder. So in this scenario, the police officer may not have intended to kill the victim, but he did intend to cause him harm, and so as death resulted it would be considered murder here. Since Australian criminal law is derived from Britain, I just assumed the above principles would be applicable there as it is here, though of course there would be some differences, but I doubt they'd be totally different. Commonwealth countries have more in common with British law than say America does.
You're correct about English law. Murder is defined as killing with malice aforethought. Malice aforethought is defined as intention to kill or to inflict grievous bodily harm. I'm not sure they would have been able to show intention for GBH in this case though.
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

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Hillary wrote:
SancheztheWhaler wrote:So... is do you have an actual opinion on this, or are you just reposting articles for our convenience?
I thought by the thread title and my description of the events that my view on this was pretty fucking obvious.

Or should I have have posted "OMFG, it's a travesty of justice. Police are above the law and we're all going to die" in a large, pink font?

Plenty of people post stuff on N&P without commenting. Do YOU have an opinion or are you just flaming?
You could have said something... and you have an interesting definition of "flaming someone." Are you really that thin-skinned, or are you just having a bad day? Does someone need a hug?

As far as my opinion, from a legal perspective it would be tough to prove intent, and it seems with 4 separate examinations there's no agreement on why exactly the guy died. (From a US perspective) it would be difficult to prove intent and/or culpability, although as it appears that the inquest/internal investigation still hasn't concluded, so perhaps something might change.

Does the UK have civil trials like we do in the US? It seems like this would be appropriate for a civil settlement; although the family may not like that, that may be their only legal recourse if the inquest upholds the officer's actions or finds him non-culpable for the man's death.
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

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Teebs wrote:
Stofsk wrote:Not necessarily. Perhaps we are both showing our knowledge of our individual legal systems. Here, murder is as you say, but with the added factor that you may have only intended to really seriously injure someone, but if death results from your act, then that's murder. So in this scenario, the police officer may not have intended to kill the victim, but he did intend to cause him harm, and so as death resulted it would be considered murder here. Since Australian criminal law is derived from Britain, I just assumed the above principles would be applicable there as it is here, though of course there would be some differences, but I doubt they'd be totally different. Commonwealth countries have more in common with British law than say America does.
You're correct about English law. Murder is defined as killing with malice aforethought. Malice aforethought is defined as intention to kill or to inflict grievous bodily harm. I'm not sure they would have been able to show intention for GBH in this case though.
Oh, why is that? I'm prepared to concede it's not murder if GBH can't be proven, but manslaughter instead.
SancheztheWhaler wrote:Does the UK have civil trials like we do in the US? It seems like this would be appropriate for a civil settlement; although the family may not like that, that may be their only legal recourse if the inquest upholds the officer's actions or finds him non-culpable for the man's death.
They do, but I don't see how a civil case can succeed if the inquest finds him non-culpable.
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

Post by Ritterin Sophia »

Sinanju wrote:
Kamakazie Sith wrote: Now, there's probably not a statute of limitations of the equivalent of manslaughter.
There isn't, but from the article it seems that they'd have trouble making the prosecution for manslaughter stick thanks to this Dr. Patel's fuck-up.

Because the defense is almost certain to be centered around the idea that, well, he could have died of a heart attack after being struck by the officer, so Harwood couldn't possibly have foreseen that. Whether it's horseshit or not (and before anyone jumps on me, I do think it's shit).

EDIT: Stuck a quote tag in for clarity.
How? Even if he did die of a heart attack the Officer is still responsible as his assault provoked it.
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

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Stofsk wrote:Oh, why is that? I'm prepared to concede it's not murder if GBH can't be proven, but manslaughter instead.
I don't know anything about this beyond the information in the newspapers and criminal law isn't an area I'm particularly interested in so take what I say with a pinch of salt. That being said, my reasoning is essentially that in the absence of agreement from the pathologists I doubt you'd be able to prove beyond reasonable doubt that the policeman intended that much harm to him when he hit him with the baton and pushed him to the ground. The fact that he moved on afterwards would support the lack of intention.
General Schatten wrote:How? Even if he did die of a heart attack the Officer is still responsible as his assault provoked it.
Can you prove that beyond reasonable doubt?
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Teebs wrote:Can you prove that beyond reasonable doubt?
You have reason to believe he was having a heart attack before? Does the guy begin clutching at his chest before the officer assaults him or something?
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

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Stofsk wrote:They do, but I don't see how a civil case can succeed if the inquest finds him non-culpable.
Perhaps things are different under commonwealth law, but in the US an internal police investigation is not a legal investigation. In other words, if the the police department were to say he wasn't responsible, a court of law (either civil or criminal) could disagree and say he was responsible.
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

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Teebs wrote:
Stofsk wrote:Oh, why is that? I'm prepared to concede it's not murder if GBH can't be proven, but manslaughter instead.
I don't know anything about this beyond the information in the newspapers and criminal law isn't an area I'm particularly interested in so take what I say with a pinch of salt. That being said, my reasoning is essentially that in the absence of agreement from the pathologists I doubt you'd be able to prove beyond reasonable doubt that the policeman intended that much harm to him when he hit him with the baton and pushed him to the ground. The fact that he moved on afterwards would support the lack of intention.
I think the fact that two subsequent (and more eminent, at least in the opinion of the second article) pathologists had findings that were completely at odds with the first pathologists', and contradicted him, would probably show that the first pathologist's report should be and would be thrown out. As for your last sentence, we may disagree on whether there was intention or not, or whether it was murder or manslaughter or not, but I would rather see justice done and put the issue to a jury than leave it alone because the Crown Prosecutor has no dash.
General Schatten wrote:How? Even if he did die of a heart attack the Officer is still responsible as his assault provoked it.
Can you prove that beyond reasonable doubt?
It's a reasonable inference to draw that even if he did die of a heart attack, the fact remains he was beaten up immediately prior to that event, therefore there is a causal relationship between the events.
SancheztheWhaler wrote:
Stofsk wrote:They do, but I don't see how a civil case can succeed if the inquest finds him non-culpable.
Perhaps things are different under commonwealth law, but in the US an internal police investigation is not a legal investigation. In other words, if the the police department were to say he wasn't responsible, a court of law (either civil or criminal) could disagree and say he was responsible.
Sorry, I misunderstood what you were referring to. I believe you're right if it's an internal police investigation. I was referring to a coronial inquest, which I gathered was what is currently going on per the article.
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

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General Schatten wrote:
Teebs wrote:Can you prove that beyond reasonable doubt?
You have reason to believe he was having a heart attack before? Does the guy begin clutching at his chest before the officer assaults him or something?
I may have put it in a slightly arsey way in which case I apologise but I just wanted to make the point that if you want to make that argument in court you have to be able to meet the burden of proof. I know very little about heart attacks and only what newspapers have said about the case, so my opinion on causation is pretty worthless. For what it's worth I agree with Stofsk that it's reasonable to infer a causal link, just don't know that that would be enough to hold up in court.
Stofsk wrote:I think the fact that two subsequent (and more eminent, at least in the opinion of the second article) pathologists had findings that were completely at odds with the first pathologists', and contradicted him, would probably show that the first pathologist's report should be and would be thrown out. As for your last sentence, we may disagree on whether there was intention or not, or whether it was murder or manslaughter or not, but I would rather see justice done and put the issue to a jury than leave it alone because the Crown Prosecutor has no dash.
I don't think we have much disagreement here. I don't think sufficient intention could be shown for a murder charge but dangerous act manslaughter (probably not the technical name) certainly seems like an appropriate charge to me. I'd much rather see justice be done too.

Edited slightly for clarity.
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

Post by Kamakazie Sith »

Stofsk wrote:Not necessarily. Perhaps we are both showing our knowledge of our individual legal systems. Here, murder is as you say, but with the added factor that you may have only intended to really seriously injure someone, but if death results from your act, then that's murder. So in this scenario, the police officer may not have intended to kill the victim, but he did intend to cause him harm, and so as death resulted it would be considered murder here. Since Australian criminal law is derived from Britain, I just assumed the above principles would be applicable there as it is here, though of course there would be some differences, but I doubt they'd be totally different. Commonwealth countries have more in common with British law than say America does.

Though the unintentional part would open it to examination at a hypothetical trial, and that might mean manslaughter would be left as an alternative verdict for the jury to consider.
Intent to seriously injure someone would be difficult to show from the action of pushing. Now if he would have ran up behind the guy and smacked him over the head with a baton then you'd have that intent, but pushing someone down?
Agreed. Also, I think it's disingenuous for the CPS to claim the initial pathology has tainted the prospect of getting a conviction for murder/manslaughter. Two subsequent pathologists provided a differing account for the victim's cause of death, which can mean the initial pathologist was either deliberately obfuscating the process (hence why I said that's perverting the course of justice) or was so incompetent that he didn't detect the signs the next pathologists discovered. Using the first pathologist as an excuse not to proceed strikes me as absurd.
I agree.
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

Post by Kamakazie Sith »

General Schatten wrote:
Teebs wrote:Can you prove that beyond reasonable doubt?
You have reason to believe he was having a heart attack before? Does the guy begin clutching at his chest before the officer assaults him or something?
Intent of the actor also matters. If you don't have intent then you don't have the crime. You'd have to prove that the officer carried out the act with the intent of inflicting serious bodily harm or death. That's a pretty difficult thing to prove when the only thing he did was push him down.
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

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Kamakazie Sith wrote:
Stofsk wrote:Not necessarily. Perhaps we are both showing our knowledge of our individual legal systems. Here, murder is as you say, but with the added factor that you may have only intended to really seriously injure someone, but if death results from your act, then that's murder. So in this scenario, the police officer may not have intended to kill the victim, but he did intend to cause him harm, and so as death resulted it would be considered murder here. Since Australian criminal law is derived from Britain, I just assumed the above principles would be applicable there as it is here, though of course there would be some differences, but I doubt they'd be totally different. Commonwealth countries have more in common with British law than say America does.

Though the unintentional part would open it to examination at a hypothetical trial, and that might mean manslaughter would be left as an alternative verdict for the jury to consider.
Intent to seriously injure someone would be difficult to show from the action of pushing. Now if he would have ran up behind the guy and smacked him over the head with a baton then you'd have that intent, but pushing someone down?
I agree and I now concede.

Edit agreed with Teebs as well btw.
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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

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Kamakazie Sith wrote:[snip] Intent to seriously injure someone would be difficult to show from the action of pushing. Now if he would have ran up behind the guy and smacked him over the head with a baton then you'd have that intent, but pushing someone down? [snip]
BBC wrote:Video footage showed him being apparently struck by a baton and then pushed to the ground.
The Guardian wrote:We've seen how, without warning or provocation, PC Simon Harwood attacked him from behind, hitting him with a baton then shoving him to the ground.
Bolding mine. ;)

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Re: UK policeman not charged for assaulting man who later di

Post by Ritterin Sophia »

Kamakazie Sith wrote:Intent of the actor also matters. If you don't have intent then you don't have the crime. You'd have to prove that the officer carried out the act with the intent of inflicting serious bodily harm or death. That's a pretty difficult thing to prove when the only thing he did was push him down.
Did you even read what I wrote? It was in reply to the feasibility of MANSLAUGHTER charges which don't require intent. And no they have surveillance tapes of the officer bludgeoning the poor guy in the back of the head with a baton.
A Certain Clique, HAB, The Chroniclers
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