Sea Skimmer wrote:Its purely a national pride/stupidity issue. The Argentinean claim is worthless; France could just as well claim all of Argentina and the Falklands by the fact that it conquered Spain in the Napoleonic Wars before Argentina was independent.
I wasn't aware you could simply claim someone's colonies. The fact that Spain took over Argentina is itself an example of imperalism. The imperialism of France gives it no greater claim to anything.
Sea Skimmer wrote:Argentina still claims Chilean territory today too, Chile also claims some bits of Argentina but is less vocal on the issue. All and all it was about on par with Saddam invading Kuwait.
I wasn't aware Baghdad had a territorial claim to Kuwait. I thought Saddam had a debt issue and needed oil, plain and simple.
Sea Skimmer wrote:In any case the Falklands possession was not random or pointless for the British to own if forgive me if I am wrong, some people seem to be making it out to be. The place was very useful as a base from which RN sailing warships could take on fresh water and fresh produce grown by the local colonists and later as a coaling station and radio station.
Pardon me, where did I say the Falklands
were pointless? Quite the contrary. They are a relic of British imperialism; they were a vital instrument in this imperialism as you now prove - a Royal Navy supply base. This only makes it worse. As of now, the British Empire is dead as Frankenstein without electricity. Relics such as the Falklands are a sad reminder that Britain once conquered and held under its yoke an enormously gigantic portion of the world, but that's what I'm pretty much talking about.
As of now, though, they are a useless piece of territory for Britain and Argentine alike; the whole conflict is a rather pointless thing.
Sea Skimmer wrote:So anyway, very useful piece of land to own, all the more so when added together with all the other RN bases around the globe.
What, now or in the past? The British Empire is dead. Britain deserves to have no bases for the Royal Navy anywhere. It might be "useful" from an imperialist viewpoint, but surely there's no business for the British to meddle anywhere in South America or South Africa. All these places are now long-standing sovereign nations.
Now the Falklands are a useless remnant. Unless Britain is wishing to restore the Empire - which it can't, or restore the Royal Navy to imperial might levels - which it also can't without going broke, and the Navy is withering anyway as it is now, Britain as a government has no use for the Falklands. Neither does Argentine, but it doesn't make Falklands useful.
I bet you'll cry a few tears over Pax Britannia, but not me.
ChaserGrey wrote:A few salient features. The Ottoman Empire, from which the modern Turkish state is descended, controls pretty much all of what we now call the Middle East, minus only the Saudi interior which at the time no one could imagine wanting. It also controls much of the Balkans, save for a bit of coastline owned by the Austrians. Do Austria and Turkey now have valid claims to any of that territory? Would they be justified in trying to assert those claims, by diplomacy or force? Bonus question: what happened to Europe the last time they did?
No. The Ottoman Empire is an imperialistic nation which conquered other territories. Modern Turkey explicitly claimed discontinuty from the Ottoman government (hint -
Revolution, something which never happened in Britain). Turkey has no right to anything. Austro-Hungary as an empire has likewise collapsed in a revolution; the end of the Habsburgs was not one of "constitutional monarchy", as I find out. So neither government claims continuancy, in fact, most have utterly repudiated their precursors and obviously precursor empires have no claim to anything.
Imperialist nations in general do not have anything that could be described as a "rightful claim".
ChaserGrey wrote:Moving northward, we see that Poland has been partitioned and dismembered between Prussia, Austria, and Russia. Who, if anyone, legitimately owns that territory? Much of the Prussian part of Poland was Prussian, and later German, until 1945. Does Germany have a claim on that territory?
As you might gather, this question is still raising a lot of tensions between Germany and Poland.
ChaserGrey wrote:Bavaria, for one example, was independent from the 8th Century A.D. until it was absorbed by Prussia in the formation of the German Empire. Should those states be independent?
If Bavaria would so desire, why not? Because Germany doesn't want it to happen? Tough luck. However, Bavaria doesn't seem to object being a part of the "German empire". Also, there's no German empire. The German government exists from 1945 and it has utterly repudiated any imperial and imperialistic character it might have had. It repudiated the concept of territorial conquest, it is antifascist and anti-militarist from inception and it only claims continuancy from the government formed in 1945.
ChaserGrey wrote:And if trying to reactivate any of those old 1840s-era claims now would be wrong, then what makes the case of Argentina and the Falklands special?
Nothing. I already mentioned it above. Nothing makes a case special. However, there clearly is a dispute. Each dispute deserves to be examined. Maybe Poland really
has a right to the territories Germany took from it at some point in history. Maybe Germany has a right to territories it took from Poland. These issues aren't so simple as "okay, huh, let's forget about this, conquest never happened".
If you follow this maxim, then then conqueror is always right. Because he presents a fait accompli and then there's no way to change it.