Questions About the Mongols

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Thanas
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

Post by Thanas »

Kingmaker wrote:My bad. Did Europe have any substantial bodies of professional troops at the time of the Mongol invasion?
Yes, but it would be wrong to think of it as Europe.

However, professionals are not INSTANTWIN by themselves. See the roman legions for that. I think the average training of a knight and certain groups of people (longbowmen, italian city soldiers, certain mercenary bands (black band) etc. would qualify them as professionals today, but there are not a lot of standing armies around.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

Post by Coop D'etat »

Kingmaker wrote:
Thanas wrote:It was a problem for them. Most cities they took had either laughable defences (Moscow) or were surprised. Not much of a chance of that happening in Germany, which is fractured into hundreds of little fiefdoms, all with at least one castle. Castles which resisted the best of European siegecraft for months. Besides, if you lug around a real siege train, you lose mobility.
How did the quality and density of both military fortresses and fortified cities in central/western Europe compare to the other areas that the Mongols invaded? Also, I would think that a large city would be harder to defend, both because it would have a larger population than a castle (and thus require more supplies) and because the defended would have a much larger front to cover. Not to mention, cities and castles are almost polar opposites when it comes to ideal locations.

Also, was the problem with massed cavalry armies in Europe one of terrain or logistics or both? I can imagine that there would be fewer horses, and thus fewer horsemen. And how did the armies of Germany differ from the Hungarians in a way that make a difference in their ability to oppose the Mongols (Thanas mentioned in the GoT thread that the Mongols were eventually beaten by professional soldiers in Europe--who?)?
A big problem for a Mongol force trying to conquer a Europe doted with castles is that they are going to suffer huge attrition in their horses by fighting an extended campaign away from the steppe and so far from their points of supply. Horses die in huge numbers in military campaigns when regular fodder can't be supplied and army eats out the surrounding territory. Every siege they undergo is time spent in one place and is going to attrit their cavalry in horses if not man-power. This is magnified by the Mongol practice of having several mounts per horseman to provide the strategic mobility which they were famous for. Each extra horse accelerates the rate a cavalry army consumes horse-feed.

This makes running around destroying stuff an easy task for the Mongols but actually taking and holding land so far from their supply much harder. This is also part of why Western Europe has proven to be a bad place for a large all cavalry force to operate for extended periods.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

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Thanas wrote:
Kingmaker wrote:My bad. Did Europe have any substantial bodies of professional troops at the time of the Mongol invasion?
Yes, but it would be wrong to think of it as Europe.

However, professionals are not INSTANTWIN by themselves. See the roman legions for that. I think the average training of a knight and certain groups of people (longbowmen, italian city soldiers, certain mercenary bands (black band) etc. would qualify them as professionals today, but there are not a lot of standing armies around.
But my Big Book of War says that professional grade troops get +4 on morale throws and count for 4x their number on melee rolls!

In all seriousness, I know Europe wasn't really big on standing armies at that point in time, nor do I actually think "Europe" is a contiguous unit. I was more curious on the extent to which bodies of professional troops existed at the time.

So what would have happened if the Mongols had decided to keep pressing deeper into Hungary or on into Germany?
In the event that the content of the above post is factually or logically flawed, I was Trolling All Along.

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Re: Questions About the Mongols

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They'd devestate large swaths of the countryside and then most likely died off or been forced to retreat.

The Maygars btw tried the same strategy against the German kingdom and after some trouble were defeated by them as well. Ironically, it also had pretty much the same unit compositions (heavy cavalry/infantry relying on fortified castles/cities for backup vs mobile light cavalry primarily armed with bow/arrow/lance).
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

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Thanas wrote:Yeah, but it is not as if Europe has no experience with similar tactics. The english tried heavy cavalry raids etc as well which had the only goal of destroying the French. They failed as well.
I thing the numbers did the difference in effectiveness. The English never fielded anything the size of the Mongol horde in their cavalry raids, if memory serves me right.

The Hungarians were also rather effective in raiding a country, but as they nearly completely lacked siege capabilites, they could not make that much an impact, as they lacked the capabilities of the Mongols to carry out part 2 of the plan - capture the big cities/fortresses.
If a fortress didn't surrender instantly (and paid ransom), they only could lay siege and wait, but had no catapults to break walls.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

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Numbers? The Maygars fielded 17k and more in their "raids", more or about equal of the mongols.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

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Thanas wrote:Numbers? The Maygars fielded 17k and more in their "raids", more or about equal of the mongols.
The 'numbers' were meant to mean the English...
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

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My apologies, misread that.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

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Just to make sure I get this right. The consensus is, that if the Mongols bypassed the strong points, ie Castles and effectively cut off supply to them, they could win. But its more likely their horses would have ran out of fodder in the different environmental conditions of Western Europe, and they would be forced to retreat before starving the Castle out.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

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mr friendly guy wrote:Just to make sure I get this right. The consensus is, that if the Mongols bypassed the strong points, ie Castles and effectively cut off supply to them, they could win.
I am not so sure that the Mongols could even do that. Western Europe did not have a road network and most of the river crossings/forest roads etc were fortified. Even more, it is not like the steppe where you could just bypass fortified places if necessary. Just trying to cross the Danube would be a major undertaking, or when you run up against many of the rivers which run through Germany.
But its more likely their horses would have ran out of fodder in the different environmental conditions of Western Europe, and they would be forced to retreat before starving the Castle out.
Or, as it happened to them in the middle east, they would be caught in the field by one of the larger, heavier armies of their day and be defeated.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

Post by K. A. Pital »

Western Russia isn't a steppe all along and there are thousands of rivers there. The number of river crossings that the Mongols had to deal with is quite significant.

Why would Western European rivers pose more of a challenge? And it's not like Russia's road network was awesome too.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

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Stas Bush wrote:Why would Western European rivers pose more of a challenge? And it's not like Russia's road network was awesome too.
Because the Danube frontier was pretty much constantly fortified for over a thousand years. You also cannot cross it in more than a few places with a large army. Also, western Europe's fortifications are much stronger and numerous than russian ones.

Also, mass light cavalry has never succeded in Western Europe.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

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Main problem with the Danube is that it can only be crossed at few points. For most of its lenght, it is too deep or has extremely steep cliffs at the sides ( = No crossing with horses possible). And the few places that allow crossing usually are already heavily fortified on both sides, as Thanas mentioned.

So the challenge is that you either try to cross it in a suicidal manner, or you have to defeat a stronghold that still has supplies from across the river, which means the usual Mongol tactic won't work.

If you would look at a topographic map of that period, you would also notice that basically all terrain west of the danube is either mountain or wood, and very little open land in comparison to the eastern parts. There is a reason why the Magyars settled in the Hungarian basin, and moved only slightly more westward in conquest.

This would be the same for the Mongols. The further west you get, the less grazing grounds, more woods, rivers and mountains, restricting your movement. Restricted movement and degraded efficiency of your main weapon du to humidity is the death knell for mounted archer armies.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

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Thanas wrote:
Stas Bush wrote:Why would Western European rivers pose more of a challenge? And it's not like Russia's road network was awesome too.
Because the Danube frontier was pretty much constantly fortified for over a thousand years. You also cannot cross it in more than a few places with a large army. Also, western Europe's fortifications are much stronger and numerous than russian ones.

Also, mass light cavalry has never succeded in Western Europe.
Didn't the Avars run into the same problems in the 6th Century?
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

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Yeah, but they also had the advantage of new and better siege engines.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

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Thanas wrote:
Kingmaker wrote:-Why did the Mongols turn back in Eastern Europe?
Allegedly because the Khan died. The better tactical reason (and it also answers why they never returned or did not go on) is because Western Europe is not a good place to wage mass cavalry raiding warfare due to a lot of castles, comparable few grazing land compared to the Steppe and due to stronger empires being able to resist them.
1. If Castles posed such a hindrance to Mongols, how did the Mongols conquer the mountain fortresses of the Hashashim. They were deemed impregnable in the Middle East.

2. How does grazing land in Europe compare to available grazing land in the Middle East, a region the Mongols held for centuries?

3. What stronger empires?
The Mamluks did it via better and more disciplined troops, especially with heavily-armored cavalry and foot crashing into the massive Mongol army and then slicing them up in close combat.
Heavily armored cavalry existed in abundance not only in Khwarezm Persia but also in Poland, Hungary and in the territories of the Teutonic order. Along with massive foot contingents. How is it that these factions got curb stomped?

The Mamluks only faced two tumens (20,000) troops at Ain Jalut and still barely won, by turning the tables on the Mongols and engaging in feigned retreats. You claimed in the GOT thread that the Mamluks later on defeated the Mongols handily but I have never in my life that anything like that.What are your sources?

By comparison the original Mongol army that invaded the Middle East numbered around 200,000.

As for Europe, eventually the Russians overthrew their Mongol Masters and defeated the last remains of them.
Eventually being centuries later. And after Timur fucked the Golden Horde up no doubt.
folti78 wrote:
Elfdart wrote:Wasn't the Mongol attack on Hungary a reprisal for harboring the Kipchaks?
Nope, no Kipchaks for Hungary. You mixed them up with the Cumans who has been granted asylum some years before the invasion.
There is no clean separation between Kypchaks and Cumans. They were a united nation (if you can call it that) and are usually treated as a common entity. So it is entirely possible that it could have been Cumans, Kypchaks or even a mix of the two.
folti78 wrote: The Kingdom of Hungary didn't have too many stone castles before the invasion, but the many west of the Danube never fell, along with many fortified cities.p
It is not even clear if Subutaiand Batu Khan were raiding or invading Europe. They only had 40,000 man after all. That's a tiny amount compared to the 200,000 strong invasion army that invaded the Middle East.
LaCroix wrote:Apart from the point Thanas raised about the problems of available grazing grounds, as far as I recall (and with some personal experience) Mongol warfare also suffered from the more humid climate in western Europe. The more humid the air becomes, the weaker their bows did become, and long periods of rain could cause warping or even complete de-lamination.
True, but if this was such a big concern, then why did the Mongols attempt to invade Vietnam, a even more humid place? The attack failed ultimately, but clearly humidity couldn't have been such a big concern.
Zinegata wrote:
In terms of actual siege warfare however, the Mongols were no better than anyone else in the world. Most of their siegecraft knowledge came from captured Chinese engineers anyway, and even with the use of ruthless tactics like using prisoners as human shields it still took the Mongols many months (if not years) before taking major fortified cities like Beijing.
Not being better than anyone else isn't bad at all. Some people in this thread seem to think that they were much worse than everyone else.
Thanas wrote:Yeah, but it is not as if Europe has no experience with similar tactics. The english tried heavy cavalry raids etc as well which had the only goal of destroying the French. They failed as well.
The English didn't even begin to have the same numbers of even Subutai's tiny army to attempt to control the countryside.
Thanas wrote:Even more, it is not like the steppe where you could just bypass fortified places if necessary.
The Mongols did not rule a little steppe empire. They ruled from China to Poland and from Mongolia to Vietnam.
Or, as it happened to them in the middle east, they would be caught in the field by one of the larger, heavier armies of their day and be defeated.
Which is why the Europeans won many famous victories against the Mongols. No wait they were all lopsided Mongol victories, whether in Liegnitz, Mohi or the countless minor battles.

Also please enlighten me about those Middle Eastern victories besides Ain Jalut.
mr friendly guy wrote:Just to make sure I get this right. The consensus is, that if the Mongols bypassed the strong points, ie Castles and effectively cut off supply to them, they could win. But its more likely their horses would have ran out of fodder in the different environmental conditions of Western Europe, and they would be forced to retreat before starving the Castle out.
The Mongols conquered castles and fortresses all over Asia and the Middle East, to suggest that somehow European castles posed an impossible hindrance is quite honestly nonsense.

IMO The reasons why the Mongols never returned to properly finish the job are much more likely to be:

- Shortly after Subutai's invasion, the Mongol Empire fragmented and the Golden Horde and Il-Khanate attacked each other instead. The Mongols couldn't muster new sufficiently sized armies to return to Europe because of this. (that's also the reason the Mamluks survived)

In addition Kublai didn't seem to care about the Western lands and preferred China and it's vicinity.

- Europe at that time was relatively poor and a backwater compared to the riches in the Middle East and Asia.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

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Stargate Nerd wrote:1. If Castles posed such a hindrance to Mongols, how did the Mongols conquer the mountain fortresses of the Hashashim. They were deemed impregnable in the Middle East.
They were not deemed impregnable and actually, the Mongol never conquered the best fortress. It surrendered.
2. How does grazing land in Europe compare to available grazing land in the Middle East, a region the Mongols held for centuries?
Very bad. But feel free to disagree with evidence.
3. What stronger empires?
The Huns. They had a much stronger position in Europe, had subjugated/allied with several of the great powers of their day and managed to penetrate.
Heavily armored cavalry existed in abundance not only in Khwarezm Persia but also in Poland, Hungary and in the territories of the Teutonic order. Along with massive foot contingents. How is it that these factions got curb stomped?
Actually, Hungary defeated a mongol invasion once it was prepared. The Teutonic Order did not get curb stomped, so the only ones left are the Poles. And the army assembled by the Duke Henry was not impressive by any means, numbering in the low thousands and including only small levies of professional soldiers.
You claimed in the GOT thread that the Mamluks later on defeated the Mongols handily but I have never in my life that anything like that.What are your sources?
Look up the battle of Horms and the battle of Shaqhab. Especially in the latter the Mongols were outgeneralled and outclassed in every sense of the words.
By comparison the original Mongol army that invaded the Middle East numbered around 200,000.
According to legend. How do you suppose such an army got supplied in reality?

There is no clean separation between Kypchaks and Cumans. They were a united nation (if you can call it that) and are usually treated as a common entity. So it is entirely possible that it could have been Cumans, Kypchaks or even a mix of the two.
Source?
It is not even clear if Subutaiand Batu Khan were raiding or invading Europe. They only had 40,000 man after all. That's a tiny amount compared to the 200,000 strong invasion army that invaded the Middle East.
It is also the maximum supply of armies you see of that period.

Not being better than anyone else isn't bad at all. Some people in this thread seem to think that they were much worse than everyone else.
Well, they did not even field good trebuchets until they brought in muslim siege engineers.
The English didn't even begin to have the same numbers of even Subutai's tiny army to attempt to control the countryside.
Which proves what exactly? I could very well bring up the huns, who also failed in their tactics.
Which is why the Europeans won many famous victories against the Mongols. No wait they were all lopsided Mongol victories, whether in Liegnitz, Mohi or the countless minor battles.
Which is why the Mongols of course completely subjugated the eastern European kingdoms? Oh wait, they did not.
The Mongols conquered castles and fortresses all over Asia and the Middle East, to suggest that somehow European castles posed an impossible hindrance is quite honestly nonsense.
Because chinese castles of course are built up to the same standards as European castles of their day. :lol:

- Europe at that time was relatively poor and a backwater compared to the riches in the Middle East and Asia.
Bull. This is the time where Europe really pulled close to the Middle East. Just look at how the population of France grew and how rich the Italian cities became.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

Post by folti78 »

Stargate Nerd wrote:
folti78 wrote:
Elfdart wrote:Wasn't the Mongol attack on Hungary a reprisal for harboring the Kipchaks?
Nope, no Kipchaks for Hungary. You mixed them up with the Cumans who has been granted asylum some years before the invasion.
There is no clean separation between Kypchaks and Cumans. They were a united nation (if you can call it that) and are usually treated as a common entity. So it is entirely possible that it could have been Cumans, Kypchaks or even a mix of the two.
That was their joint khanate on the steppe, which the Mongols smashed, resulting the Cumans seeking asylum in Hungary. The Kipchak remains went elsewhere. The old chronicles speak only the Cumans(who were known well, because the kingdom spent a good part of the 12th century fighting them), which means that whatever Kipchak remnants came with the Cumans, they were too few to form a separate entity and deal with the Hungarian authorities themselves. It's quite telling that the lands finally granted to the Cumans still bear their name (Kiskunság and Nagykunság aka Lesser and Greater Cumania), had their own comitatuses for centuries and even the modern counties contain their name(it's the same for the Jassics), while Kipchaks are unknown here.
folti78 wrote: The Kingdom of Hungary didn't have too many stone castles before the invasion, but the many west of the Danube never fell, along with many fortified cities.p
It is not even clear if Subutaiand Batu Khan were raiding or invading Europe. They only had 40,000 man after all. That's a tiny amount compared to the 200,000 strong invasion army that invaded the Middle East.
Source? The Alföld would be a too good area for steppe nomads to pass on as an outpost/staging area with natural defences all around to boot. Also according to footnote 15 of this Wikipedia entry speaks about Batu appointing a Mongol official tasked to collect taxes from the land. Which you don't do at lands you only want to raid.
Or, as it happened to them in the middle east, they would be caught in the field by one of the larger, heavier armies of their day and be defeated.
Which is why the Europeans won many famous victories against the Mongols. No wait they were all lopsided Mongol victories, whether in Liegnitz, Mohi or the countless minor battles.
The Hungarian king had an understrength force at Mohi, thanks to his policies alienating the nobility in the previous decade. Still it wasn't exactly the single sided curbstomp everyone remembers, until the end of the battle. The next time they came, they got curbstomped, because everyone got the memo that the Mongols shouldn't be taken lightly and bolstered the country's defences..
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

Post by Stargate Nerd »

Sorry for the late reply. Got kinda busy.
Thanas wrote: They were not deemed impregnable and actually, the Mongol never conquered the best fortress. It surrendered.
Regardless of whether you agree with their reputation, they were proper castles. And the Mongols successfully besieged them with Mangonels and Chinese siege crossbows at high altitudes.
Very bad. But feel free to disagree with evidence.
It was an honest question.

If the grazing situation is so bad, how did the Huns put up with it as long as they did?
The Huns. They had a much stronger position in Europe, had subjugated/allied with several of the great powers of their day and managed to penetrate.
Uh, what stronger empires would stop the Mongols as per your claim.
Actually, Hungary defeated a mongol invasion once it was prepared. The Teutonic Order did not get curb stomped, so the only ones left are the Poles. And the army assembled by the Duke Henry was not impressive by any means, numbering in the low thousands and including only small levies of professional soldiers.
The Teutonic order is speculated to have joined the army at Liegnitz. A proper Mongol victory. Also those low numbers and the troop makeup, there is a wide range of speculation regarding that. Do you automatically assume the low end to be correct because it fits your narrative?

As for Hungary, they lay in utter ruins the first time. The second invasion they faced was not anything like the one led by Subutai so I don't see the relevance. It's not like I claimed that the Golden Horde could have conquered Europe. I argue that the unified Mongol Empire could have conquered it. Also Nogai Khan still successfully raided Hungary, and as TC Pilot already pointed out, he was caught up in unfavorable weather conditions as well.
Look up the battle of Horms and the battle of Shaqhab. Especially in the latter the Mongols were outgeneralled and outclassed in every sense of the words.
No I would like to read YOUR sources. Because I'd like to confirm your claims of handy victories.

In any case those battles are decades after Ain Jalut, this time against a weakened Il-Khanate. And again, it was the Il-Khanate that was defeated and those victories were anything but handy.
According to legend. How do you suppose such an army got supplied in reality?
What's a more realistic figure then?
Well, they did not even field good trebuchets until they brought in muslim siege engineers.
And without the Chinese siege engineers they had no sieging capabilities. So what? The entire point is that the Mongol Empire HAD access to these resources.
Which proves what exactly? I could very well bring up the huns, who also failed in their tactics.
Please do.
Which is why the Mongols of course completely subjugated the eastern European kingdoms? Oh wait, they did not.
Um isn't that the topic of this thread, why Europe wasn't conquered? It wasn't for a lack of victories against European powers.
Because chinese castles of course are built up to the same standards as European castles of their day. :lol:
Maybe not. Doesn't change that the Mongols conquered them all over the world and some in Europe as well.
Bull. This is the time where Europe really pulled close to the Middle East. Just look at how the population of France grew and how rich the Italian cities became.
Well I didn't know France was that wealthy at that time. Nevermind this reason then.
folti78 wrote:
That was their joint khanate on the steppe, which the Mongols smashed, resulting the Cumans seeking asylum in Hungary. The Kipchak remains went elsewhere. The old chronicles speak only the Cumans(who were known well, because the kingdom spent a good part of the 12th century fighting them), which means that whatever Kipchak remnants came with the Cumans, they were too few to form a separate entity and deal with the Hungarian authorities themselves. It's quite telling that the lands finally granted to the Cumans still bear their name (Kiskunság and Nagykunság aka Lesser and Greater Cumania), had their own comitatuses for centuries and even the modern counties contain their name(it's the same for the Jassics), while Kipchaks are unknown here.
Source?
My point is that the old chroniclers did not know that well the separation between Kipchaks and Cumans. That's hard even today. If someone asked you about the differences between the Kipchaks, Cumans and Pechenegs in warfare and lifestyle, what would you answer? So even though the Chroniclers talked about Cumans, those could have been Kipchaks or a mix.


Source? The Alföld would be a too good area for steppe nomads to pass on as an outpost/staging area with natural defences all around to boot.
You're actually right, the Mongols did have plans to use the Hungarian Plains as a staging ground for an invasion of Europe. But it never came to that because Subutai retreated and the empire fragmented.
Also according to footnote 15 of this Wikipedia entry speaks about Batu appointing a Mongol official tasked to collect taxes from the land. Which you don't do at lands you only want to raid.
That's certainly interesting.
The Hungarian king had an understrength force at Mohi, thanks to his policies alienating the nobility in the previous decade. Still it wasn't exactly the single sided curbstomp everyone remembers, until the end of the battle. The next time they came, they got curbstomped, because everyone got the memo that the Mongols shouldn't be taken lightly and bolstered the country's defences..
The Hungarians actually put up a good fight thanks to the river and their crossbow and they inflicted heavy casualties upon the Mongols, that doesn't really change the fact that it was a decisive Mongol victory though.

Also the Golden Horde might have failed to occupy Hungary, but they still successfully raided the shit out of it. But that's irrelevant to whether or not Subutai and the unified Mongol Empire could have conquered Europe.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

Post by Thanas »

Stargate Nerd wrote:Sorry for the late reply. Got kinda busy.
Thanas wrote: They were not deemed impregnable and actually, the Mongol never conquered the best fortress. It surrendered.
Regardless of whether you agree with their reputation, they were proper castles. And the Mongols successfully besieged them with Mangonels and Chinese siege crossbows at high altitudes.
They did not. They conquered a few fortreses, but never managed to defeat a fortress by force of arms that required trebuchets to take it - until they imported trebuchets from the west many years later. Feel free to disagree by presenting evidence that the Mongols did take castles by storm that were deemed to be the best of their day.

If the grazing situation is so bad, how did the Huns put up with it as long as they did?
By living on the grazing plains of the steppe and transitioning to a mass infantry army. You'll also note that the hunnic empire fell apart shortly after that and that they were actually defeated by the Romans and ended their lifes as soldiers of Rome.

More on the grazing situation:
According to John of Plano Carpini the death of Ogedei prompted the Mongols' withdrawal from Hungary. Valuable though the Friar's account may be, it does contain many mistakes, of which this explanation is a prime example. Unfortunately, the mistake has been perpetuated by generations of historians (including the present writer), who, for a long time, never pondered on the inherent weakness of this theory. Ogedei died on December 11, 1241, and it had been argued that when the news reached him, Batu, who might have had personal, imperial ambitions, decided either to return to Mongolia or, at least, to move closer to it. The fact is that Batu showed no signs of any desire to travel to Mongolia, but after the evacuation of Hungary remained on the South Russian steppe, still very far from the center of power. Whether Batu ever harbored ambitions to become the Great Khan is a moot question, but his behavior certainly did not reveal anything of the sort. Available evidence suggests that he was content to be the de facto ruler of the western part of the Mongol empire, and that he showed great loyalty to Ogedei's successor, Guyuk. The reason for the Mongol withdrawal from Hungary must be sought elsewhere; it was caused by logistical imperatives.

It is impossible to give an accurate assessment of the size of the Mongol army, let alone of the strength of the troops invading Hungary. The contemporary Roger speaks of half a million, but this is surely an exaggeration. According to Simon of St. Quentin 35 Batu's army (in 1245) was seven times the size of that of Ogedei, commander in the Near East, whose men numbered 600,000, comprising 160,000 Mongols. The Mongol army was divided into divisions (tumen), ten thousand men strong, and it is hard to imagine that each of the four army corps constituting Batu's right and left wing respectively would have had less than one tumen. Even on the minimal level together they would have had 40,000 men. Bela's army is estimated to have been 65,000 strong, and it is reasonable to reckon that the Mongol center, opposing and defeating it, numbered at least as many. At a very conservative estimate one can set the strength of the Mongol invading forces between 105,000 and 150,000 men, a figure much lower than any of those appearing in our sources.

The military strength of the great nomad empires, and that of the Mongols in particular, rested on their cavalry and on a virtually inexhaustible supply of horses. According to Plano Carpini, the Mongols "have so many horses and mares that I do not believe there are so many in all the rest of the world." There is evidence that each warrior had at least three or four horses, but Marco Polo spoke of about eighteen mounts for each man! Taking into consideration the losses suffered by the Mongols we may count with, say 100,000 men occupying Hungary who would then need, on a conservative estimate at least some 400,000 horses. It has been suggested that about 42,000 square kilometers (10,378,425 acres) can or could be used as grazing land. Estimates of grazing or carrying capacity of ranges vary widely but on the assumption that at that time about 25 acres were needed to support one horse for one year, the carrying capacity of the Hungarian range must be set at 415,136 animal units. On the completely unrealistic condition that no other animals were using these pastures, and counting five horses per Mongol horseman, the Hungarian range could provide for the mounts of 83,027 warriors, clearly far below the strength of the Mongol army. The Mongol high command found itself in a position similar to that of a commander of a modern armored division running short of fuel. Further advance to the west, into Transdanubia, would have made matters worse. It was the habit of the Mongols to stop fighting in the spring and let their horses go free to water and graze, and to multiply, so that they would be ready for war in the autumn. This is the reason why in the spring of 1242 the Mongols withdrew from devastated, overgrazed Hungary to the abundant pastures of the steppe, where they could replenish and strengthen their herds, on which their military power rested
From here.

So want to make the claim again that somehow, the Mongols, will be able to invade Europe? If so, prevent evidence for the abundance of grazing land.

Uh, what stronger empires would stop the Mongols as per your claim.
The Holy Roman Empire. The French. The British. The Mamluks. Any of these empires is to large to be taken down by raids, if largescale raiding is even possible (see above). If Hungary can stand up to them, the HRE certainly can. I mean, have you ever really taken stock of the castles of that time? There were over 20.000 of those in Germany alone. And surprise, surprise, the most heavily fortified area is pretty much the approach the Mongols would have to take - Bohemia. You note how the Mongols never even attempted to take it?


The Teutonic order is speculated to have joined the army at Liegnitz. A proper Mongol victory. Also those low numbers and the troop makeup, there is a wide range of speculation regarding that. Do you automatically assume the low end to be correct because it fits your narrative?
There is no evidence at all for the Teutonic order to be present. None. Stop with your lies and baseless speculations and prevent evidence. Low numbers are usually to be taken more effective due to the logistical situation and the fact that Poland was not the richest of countries to start with.
As for Hungary, they lay in utter ruins the first time. The second invasion they faced was not anything like the one led by Subutai so I don't see the relevance. It's not like I claimed that the Golden Horde could have conquered Europe. I argue that the unified Mongol Empire could have conquered it. Also Nogai Khan still successfully raided Hungary, and as TC Pilot already pointed out, he was caught up in unfavorable weather conditions as well.
Yes, for sure. If only they had magic supplies.
No I would like to read YOUR sources. Because I'd like to confirm your claims of handy victories.
You can read about them in Al-Maqrizi, but he is not available online and I doubt you speak medieval arabic. Other than that, google or wikipedia might help.

What's a more realistic figure then?
For total army supply? I am not comfortable making such a definitive claim as it is not my speciality. However, please note that 200.000 men was more than double of what the Romans, with a supply fleet of 600 ships engaged full time, the advantage of friendly terrains, relatively cheap infantry and comparatively few cavalry could supply.
Which proves what exactly? I could very well bring up the huns, who also failed in their tactics.
Please do.
I assume you concede the point then?
Um isn't that the topic of this thread, why Europe wasn't conquered? It wasn't for a lack of victories against European powers.
They never faced any major European power in the field either.
Maybe not. Doesn't change that the Mongols conquered them all over the world and some in Europe as well.
They conquered very few castles at all and none come to mind which they took through a real siege.

My point is that the old chroniclers did not know that well the separation between Kipchaks and Cumans. That's hard even today. If someone asked you about the differences between the Kipchaks, Cumans and Pechenegs in warfare and lifestyle, what would you answer? So even though the Chroniclers talked about Cumans, those could have been Kipchaks or a mix.
Read the article I linked to in full, please.

You're actually right, the Mongols did have plans to use the Hungarian Plains as a staging ground for an invasion of Europe. But it never came to that because Subutai retreated and the empire fragmented.
No, it never came to that because even Hungary sucked as a staging ground for an army even half the size of the Mongol force. I find it annoying that you act as if neither Hungary, nor any western nation in Europe never once thought of going mass cavalry. What, they were all too stupid, even after centuries of experience in dealing with Steppe people? Just think how utterly arrogant that argument sounds.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

Post by Elfdart »

Out of curiosity, I Googled a few maps of the region and noticed that the same area the Mongols halted is more or less the same area where the Huns, Avars, Magyars and later, the Turks stalled (roughly, the area around Vienna and Bratislava). That can't just be a coincidence. It's also telling that the Turks (who used combined arms more than the others) were stoned in that same area, and I suspect for the same reasons.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

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Well, yes and no. Yes, because no steppe people lived anywhere near west of it (Though the Maygars did all the way up to Magdeburg). Also, the Huns raided all the way up to Rome (bad decision) and Gaul (ditto). And the Ottomans who were halted in that area did not resemble a Steppe people anymore and had not done so for several centuries.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

Post by folti78 »

The Ottomans had a different set of problems then the steppe nomads.

The nomadic people had the problem of horse unfriendly terrain west of the Danube(as LaCroix mentioned earlier), while the Ottomans biggest problem was that their largest forces wasn't winter equipped*, so every autumn they had to retreat from the occupied territories with continental climate (eg Hungary, Serbia etc) and march back from the south Balkans next spring. The territory was heavily fortified since the Mongols, dotted with castles, which had to be taken (or retaken** if the the enemy took it back after you left) by siege, causing delays***. (for example, the sieges of Kőszeg, Szigetvár or in a smaller case, Eger)

* IIRC they never tried to winter anything larger than garrison forces in the occuped territories. Probably didn't have the ability to provision their 100k+ forces.
** this was the constant theme of the 150 year long ottoman occupation of Hungary, along with constant raiding of each others territory by light horse patrols.
*** in some cases giving time to raise armies to check the ottomans.
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

Post by Skgoa »

Actually, since the start of this thread I have been thinking about going for a hike outside the city and take a camera with me. I live not to far north of the Carpathian Basin (i.e. where many "barbarian" invasions lost steem) and one look at the terrain should render any uncertainty moot. And lets not forget that this area has been the border of one empire or another for a long time. The Ottomans could not advance any further when they met the Holy Roman Empire, the Huns ran into the Franks and then decided that northern Italy was a better target. The Avars had the problem that they too ran into the Franks, but couldn't do anything against Rome. (So they stayed in the Carpathian Basin until the next guys invaded Europe.)
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Re: Questions About the Mongols

Post by LaCroix »

The problem for conquest is that the Carpathian basin is a perfect funnel with a double chokepoint.

If you approach it, you find that the southern route is perfect grazing land, open terrain instead of the mountains and forrests to the north (Czech and Slovak territories). So it's perfectly reasonable to follow that path, especially as it opens into a wide plain (the Hungarian plain). Once you are in there, you can only get westwards through another narrow pass, directly across Vienna. And that pathway has been extremely fortified over the generations of invaders coming across it.

On the other hand, anyone coming from the western side will face a perfect chokepoint when he moves towards Bucarest...
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