Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

Post by Carinthium »

Ahriman:
So far, so good. The problem being that the law has to be clear in all possible cases, which makes it impractical to simplify to the biblical "no killing" for example. Society has also grown more complex but trimming unnecessary legislation is good. Keep in mind not everyone will agree with you on what laws are unnecessary.
True. A partial solution is for the government to incorporate legal education into compulsory education (remember this is a second best for libertarianism so I'm throwing libertarian ideas to the wind here) in order to ensure people can understand more law. Another partial solution is to make it illegal to work in certain areas unless you can pass tests on law related to that area. A third partial solution would be to cut down on unnecessary laws.

The metaphorical Crowning Jewel would be a law something along the following lines, ideally in the Constitution.

A person may not be punished for an action or compelled to pay civil penalties for an action if they could not be reasonably aware of said penalties.

I don't know how to best clarify it and make it work- the idea is an outline, not a completed law. But something along these lines should do it. Naturally, I would substitute for "reasonable" some complicated code of procedures for when a person was or was not considered capable of understanding a law.
And from a promising beginning, to crash and burn. The courts interpret the law, to see where it fits and where it does not, and when two laws contradict each other, to decide which is more important. This is a common law thing, a tradition predating our nation by a very long time and expanded on by our nation's founders. The Framers gave every branch of government the tools to cripple the others, so none could dominate and nothing could be done without either consensus or compromise. Judges are constrained by a number of rules, formalized and not, and are subject to dismissal (except the Supremes) should they fail to do their jobs, or abuse their power. The flipside is they can;t be given the boot for doing their damn jobs.
I have already pointed out that I am ignoring intentions here. I am also, of course, ignoring tradition- just because something is traditional (and common law is that, I'm not disputing) doesn't mean it is good.

Frankly, if I had sufficient power that I could actually win, I would consider a nation's adoption of common law a sufficient just cause to invade and conquer it. My reasons are pretty much already stated- just because it's a judge's job to do something doesn't mean it is right.

Finally, of course, judges have an oath to uphold the law which they are breaking on a regular basis. Were I a judge (somehow), I would absolutely refuse to make any ruling that, as far as I could tell, would involve me MAKING law instead of simply making clear existing law.
A precedent is not law, it is merely a precedent. Some other judge found this interpretation to have merit, so it warrants examination and consideration. No more, no less. It certainly does not apply retroactively to previous crimes. You should worry about what is illegal now, because the law at the time of the act is what's applied. If something wasn't illegal when you did it, you;re good. If something was illegal when you did, but is ok now, you're boned. This to is enshrined in the US Constitution.
This is how the law works in theory- if this were how it really worked I would have less of a problem. However, in practice this is not true- such as when negligence was retroactively established in Donoghue v.s Stevenson or the American case (which I can't remember, but I wanted to use cases from several jurisdictions to make a point) in which it was retroactively ruled that the federal government could put restrictions on firearm ownership and thus that federal firearm laws applied.
I'm sorry, I'm just having so much trouble taking you seriously when you claim we should have a perfect, immutable and simple law. The world changes, people change. We struggle today with some problems the Framers knew well, and many they couldn't have possibly imagined, while so many issues that seemed world-consuming at the time are long settled and forgotten. The Framers knew they didn't have a perfect law that would always work, that's why they included a process for changing it.
One thing I agree that I share with Kant is the conviction that there are moral duties that exist regardless of the consequences- such as the quasi-duty of a law-imposer not to impose laws on people that they cannot understand.

The only laws I advocate as immutable are Constitutional laws- changes of law which are not retroactive and which give people ample to adjust to the change of law do not violate the rights of the people to understand them.
Again, if you're a judge, interpreting law is what you do. That is your job. I really appreciate the idea that the law should be simple enough for a layman, but I don't see how it's practical with a society as large and complex as ours. I completely reject the idea that there is no middle ground whatsoever between an informed citizenry and a judiciary that works. Perhaps a better education could communicate at least the broad strokes to everyone without getting into the nuance of exceptions, clauses and case law. Oh wait, we already do that.
Logically, there is no reason why "it's in the job description" should imply "it is morally acceptable behaviour." There are plenty of means to make the law work, as I have mentioned.
Education is absolutely, crucially, a matter for protection. A free and appropriate public education is nothing less than the birthright of each and every citizen, and something they pay for through taxes.
No it isn't- to teach somebody and to protect them are two different things, as common sense would show. As a matter of modern cultural convention I agree that said public education is SEEN as a birthright- but why should it be?
And we all know there are only two valid and irreconcilable views on law?
Any hypothetical mixture of intentionalist and literalism would be me creating an arbitrary meta-code of law to judge law. I would thus be imposing my own opinions of how law should be judged on the actual law. If writing a Constitution, I would say something like:

This Constitution is to be interpreted literally, except in the event of literal ambiguity. In the event of literal ambiguity, the interpretation closest to original intent is to be followed.

But not being the writer, I have no right to do this.
Context matters. We'd just fought a bloody Civil War, the most destructive conflict in our history and it wasn't going to happen ever again. There's a clause of the 14th banning any public official or military officer who betrayed his oaths through rebellion from ever again serving a position of public trust.
Maybe you're right on proper intentionalist interpretation- as I said, I'm not sure. You do make a good case.
A very different question. But the NAACP and Brown's argument was that Separate cannot be Equal. If a black man cannot share a sidewalk with a white man, nor a lavatory, a waiting room or a school he is not equal even if his bathroom was as good as any. Because one man can go where he chooses, act as he likes within the bounds of law and reason, and the other cannot.
I agree that they are not equal under the law, just as children are not equal under the law. But the clause in question discusses the equal PROTECTION of the law.

Terralthra:

1- Equally PROTECTED, not equally SERVED. There is a difference.

2- So you're saying it's impossible to care about laws and not care about people? Even if your straw man were true, isn't that at odds with reality?

Loomer:
I already knew about the legal fiction that the Common Law merely reveals the law as it is. That is, however, just that- a legal fiction. Given that in reality judges are making up law, then in reality it follows that the injustice exists.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

Post by Thanas »

Carinthium wrote:1- Equally PROTECTED, not equally SERVED. There is a difference.
No there is not. If I am unable to gain equal access to publicly funded schools, then my interests are not equally protected under the law.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

Post by Carinthium »

The equal protection of the law is given to persons, not to a person's interests. They are two different things, Thanas.

For those who accuse me of splitting hairs, I reply that it is absurd to attempt a literalist interpretation without what is metaphorically called hair-splitting.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

Post by Broomstick »

How do you reconcile your views on the instance in the OP - a religious test for a government position with the third paragraph of Article IV of the US constitution? Specially, the bit that says:
The Senators and Representatives before mentioned, and the Members of the several State Legislatures, and all executive and judicial Officers, both of the United States and of the several States, shall be bound by Oath or Affirmation, to support this Constitution; but no religious Test shall ever be required as a Qualification to any Office or public Trust under the United States.
Likewise, the OP also states that such a religious test is also against the Texas state constituion.

Seems pretty clear to me that these parts of constitutions were violated in the OP.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

Post by Edi »

Carinthium wrote:The equal protection of the law is given to persons, not to a person's interests. They are two different things, Thanas.

For those who accuse me of splitting hairs, I reply that it is absurd to attempt a literalist interpretation without what is metaphorically called hair-splitting.
This is bullshit, Carinthium. People are protected precisely because of their interests, or their interests are equally protected before the law. Otherwise you might as well have laws that say gay people or black people have no right to have their property protected from burglary or robbery or whatever. The problem there being that since the property is theirs (based on the right to own property), they must have equal protection with everyone else.

Now, the interesting part here is that the right to own property (as well as other rights) are based on the axiom that a person has an interest in owning property because of what that property allows them to do. ALL rights derive from interests in a similar fashion.

So for you to say that only people are protected, not their interests, is precisely semantic hairsplitting that is bullshit on its face since it has absolutely no foundation whatsoever.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

Post by Carinthium »

Broomstick:
I don't about the Texan constitution (I honestly don't), but I'm going to point out several things.

Firstly, "no religious test" is not the same as "no political test". Only some of it crosses the line on that aspect.

Secondly and more importantly, maybe it is unconstitutional(I don't think I ever technically said it wasn't. If I did, I made a mistake and I'm correcting it now). Still, you're a hypocrite if you endorse some unconstitutional policies and condemn others for being unconstitutional.

Edi:
Such laws as you mention would be constitutional, I agree. A literal interpretation of a text MUST be based on semantic hairsplitting when required, or else how can it be called literal?

In addition, your piece of philosophical theory that "People are protected precisely because of their interests, or their interests are equally protected before the law" has no basis in the Constitution and is just that- philosophical theory. Whatever you define a person to be, that is what is protected equally under the Constitution- nothing more.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

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Carinthium wrote:The equal protection of the law is given to persons, not to a person's interests. They are two different things, Thanas.
Person A pays 100$ and gets 60$ worth of schooling in return.
Person B pays 100$ and gets 140$ worth of schooling in return.
You have a law stating that this is the only thing that will happen and that this is state-imposed. The state is promoting injustice and in fact legalizing it or requiring it to happen.

This is not equal protection. This is active discrimination.
Warren wrote:Segregation of white and colored children in public schools has a detrimental effect upon the colored children. The impact is greater when it has the sanction of the law, for the policy of separating the races is usually interpreted as denoting the inferiority of the negro group. A sense of inferiority affects the motivation of a child to learn. Segregation with the sanction of law, therefore, has a tendency to [retard] the educational and mental development of negro children and to deprive them of some of the benefits they would receive in a racial[ly] integrated school system[...]Separate educational facilities are inherently unequal. Therefore, we hold that the plaintiffs and others similarly situated for whom the actions have been brought are, by reason of the segregation complained of, deprived of the equal protection of the laws guaranteed by the Fourteenth Amendment.
For those who accuse me of splitting hairs, I reply that it is absurd to attempt a literalist interpretation without what is metaphorically called hair-splitting.
And I'll say that any such interpretation is bullshit. The law which protects my bodily integrity clearly protects my interests - namely the interest of not having personal harm come to me.

If you want to continue this, then cite some support for this thesis of yours that rights are entirely different from interests and do not derive from them at all.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

Post by Terralthra »

Oh, man. We've gone round the wingnut bend. What exactly does the 14th Amendment guarantee equal protection of the law for, if not equal access to education (hint: in order for laws to be understandable to all citizens, they all need to be literate. Oh, shit, there went your argument), or equal protection under law enforcement auspices?
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

Post by Broomstick »

Carinthium wrote:Broomstick:
I don't about the Texan constitution (I honestly don't), but I'm going to point out several things.
You are just as capable of looking up the Texas constitution as the rest of us. Since you are so hell bent on literal interpretation perhaps you should look it up before commenting on something relevant to that docutment.
Firstly, "no religious test" is not the same as "no political test". Only some of it crosses the line on that aspect.
So, you concede there was religious testing for a public office. Under your reasoning that makes the conduct described in the OP unconstitutional therefore illegal. So... what are you arguing about here again? Breaking the law is breaking the law. What was done is clearly illegal and always has been in the US. You can't get plainer than "no religious test", THAT phrase has no room for interpretation.
Secondly and more importantly, maybe it is unconstitutional(I don't think I ever technically said it wasn't. If I did, I made a mistake and I'm correcting it now). Still, you're a hypocrite if you endorse some unconstitutional policies and condemn others for being unconstitutional.
Two points:

As I have not stated my position on the literalist/interpretive divide in any detail you haven't a clue what my views actually are, and thus haven't a clue whether or not I'm a hypocrite.

Further, your definition is rather extreme even by literal constructionists and in my opinion you have yet to demonstrate its validity.

Third, since it is rather plainly laid out in the original US constitution that you can ammend the document your notion that it is somehow an inviolable and unchangeable document is invalidated by your own arguments. A means to change the document is written into the document, therefore it can be legally changed.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

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You seem to be under the misconception that my thesis appeals either to pragmatism (it doesn't) or to some theory of philosophy outside the text of the Constitution (it doesn't). Thanas's evidence of the harm caused by segregation, for example, is completely irrelevant to the discussion. Terralthra, you're getting intentions and literal meaning mixed up again (the purpose of a law is irrelevant to a literal interpretation).

If you choose to define a right to bodily integrity as an "interest", so be it. But to say that you are protecting that one interest does not logically imply protecting all of them. Protecting a person does not mean protecting all their interests- they can go together, but are not identical. To protect the person means (actually, it could be construed as even narrower, but this is far as I can tell) protecting them from bodily harm.

I should also point out that a right to protection does not give a person the right to be GIVEN anything. To educate a person is to give them an active benefit, after all.

Out of curiousity, are the two of you at least sensible enough to accept that it would be LEGAL, however immoral or unlikely, for a State to decriminalise murder, assault, rape etc and thus deliberately descend into anarchy? Or for them to completely abolish public education?

BroomStick:
You are just as capable of looking up the Texas constitution as the rest of us. Since you are so hell bent on literal interpretation perhaps you should look it up before commenting on something relevant to that docutment.
It wasn't relevant to my original point, which is an inconsistency in denouncing things as unconstitutional when supporting an unconstitutional policy.
So, you concede there was religious testing for a public office. Under your reasoning that makes the conduct described in the OP unconstitutional therefore illegal. So... what are you arguing about here again? Breaking the law is breaking the law. What was done is clearly illegal and always has been in the US. You can't get plainer than "no religious test", THAT phrase has no room for interpretation.
See above.
Two points:

As I have not stated my position on the literalist/interpretive divide in any detail you haven't a clue what my views actually are, and thus haven't a clue whether or not I'm a hypocrite.

Further, your definition is rather extreme even by literal constructionists and in my opinion you have yet to demonstrate its validity.

Third, since it is rather plainly laid out in the original US constitution that you can ammend the document your notion that it is somehow an inviolable and unchangeable document is invalidated by your own arguments. A means to change the document is written into the document, therefore it can be legally changed.
First, maybe you ARE in fact opposed to the Brown case ruling (in theory). If you are, then you are exempt from my criticism as it was worded. However, there IS no theory that makes sense

Second, I have to use a narrow interpretation or I am in fact imposing my own philosophy on the Constitution.

Third, the U.S Constitution is not involable and unchangable but it is Sovereign. It can only be changed by means which (to use a metaphor) the Constitution itself consents to.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

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You are now dodging the question. The 14th Amendment says that all persons have the right to equal protection under the law. If a law discriminates against some people, they do not have equal protection under it. Do you agree?

If yes, then Brown v. Board is valid law.

If no, then what exactly does it mean that all persons have the right to equal protection of the law?

Because it seems to mean absolutely nothing if you truly assert that explicitly discriminatory laws do not violate the equal protection clause.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

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Apologies if this wasn't clear earlier, but equal protection under the law means equal protection of persons under the law- i.e. protection of their bodies against harm to them.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

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Do keep in mind, when responding, that the 14th Amendment was explicitly passed in response to post-Civil War "black codes" restricting the property rights of blacks, and giving higher sentences to blacks than whites for the same crime.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

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That only matters regarding intention- to call an interpretation which takes such things into account 'literal' is absurd.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

Post by Terralthra »

As I have previously pointed out, there is no such thing as "literal meaning." Lexical meaning is created by the interaction of text with existing structures of meaning in the minds of reader and writer. Your pretense otherwise is hilarious, as is your interpretation of the Constitution.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

Post by Carinthium »

I'll try and improve on what I've already said in response to that point in the morning.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

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Carinthium wrote:Apologies if this wasn't clear earlier, but equal protection under the law means equal protection of persons under the law- i.e. protection of their bodies against harm to them.
Protecting persons against active discrimination is the same principle.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

Post by Carinthium »

That one's an easy one by comparison- not only is "protecting people" in that sense a metaphor, but it is a metaphor which leads to self-contradictory conclusions. After all, you could also say that racial segregation is "protecting" people of one race against unclean, or at least unpleasant, interactions with other races. Without appeal to extratextual sources, how are you meant to solve that contradiction?
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

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Carinthium wrote:That one's an easy one by comparison- not only is "protecting people" in that sense a metaphor, but it is a metaphor which leads to self-contradictory conclusions. After all, you could also say that racial segregation is "protecting" people of one race against unclean, or at least unpleasant, interactions with other races. Without appeal to extratextual sources, how are you meant to solve that contradiction?
Racial segregation is active discrimination. We DO NOT need to appeal to extratextual sources AT ALL in order to find it illegal. The protection of laws is nothing but trying to equally stop illegal harm from hurting anyone of the same legal status. Nobody but an idiot or a racist would argue that discrimination based on race is protection of anything but racist feelings. Which are not a valid goal of the constitution, as I sure did not read "in order to form a racially clean union" anywhere in the document.

By your logic, robbing someone would also be protection, namely protection of the robber being poor or going hungry. Do you see how utterly stupid that is? Are you that much of an ignorant asshole?
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

Post by Carinthium »

The difference is between a literal interpretation and a metaphorical interpretation. Basically, to use anything outside the pure literal wording in a literal interpretation is silly. Since "protection" of anything other than the body is non-literal interpretation, it is invalid.

Besides, if racial discrimination in general is a form of harm to be protected from then where does it end? What about gender discrimination? What about discrimination against children? (Children are sufficiently inferior to adults that a race of permanent children could be safely called an inferior race, but sometimes their abilities are dismissed in a way that is not justified on the evidence merely because they are children).

"To form a racially clean union" would be intentionalist. As I am repeatedly pointing out, intentions do not factor into this. The problem with robbing is also a problem with interpreting clauses such as this- the only way to avoid such textual interpretation problems is with pure literalism.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

Post by Ahriman238 »

Carinthium. Oh, Carinthium.
A partial solution is for the government to incorporate legal education into compulsory education (remember this is a second best for libertarianism so I'm throwing libertarian ideas to the wind here) in order to ensure people can understand more law. Another partial solution is to make it illegal to work in certain areas unless you can pass tests on law related to that area. A third partial solution would be to cut down on unnecessary laws.
First and Third are fine, worthwhile endeavors. The Second violates privileges and immunities.
A person may not be punished for an action or compelled to pay civil penalties for an action if they could not be reasonably aware of said penalties.
Biting my tongue to avoid the obvious quote, which wouldn't match my position at all. That would have to be a pretty exhaustive criteria for determining who can and cannot be expected to know the law, and riddled with loopholes and exploits.
The equal protection of the law is given to persons, not to a person's interests. They are two different things, Thanas.
The protection of the law is rooted in a universal right to your own life, liberty and property. A law that protects one and not the other two is a dismal failure by any measure.
Firstly, "no religious test" is not the same as "no political test". Only some of it crosses the line on that aspect.
Ok, now I call hair-splitting. Leaving aside the legality or morality of a political test, a religious test was included, therefore the test was illegal. You don't get points for stopping for red lights in a stolen car.
Still, you're a hypocrite if you endorse some unconstitutional policies and condemn others for being unconstitutional.
Facetious. That's not what's happening here and even if the charge were accurate, a person could oppose an unconstitutional law on moral grounds, condemn others for being immoral and stupid, and remain entirely self-consistent.
In addition, your piece of philosophical theory that "People are protected precisely because of their interests, or their interests are equally protected before the law" has no basis in the Constitution and is just that- philosophical theory. Whatever you define a person to be, that is what is protected equally under the Constitution- nothing more.
It's a principle much rooted in common law which, oh yeah, is enshrined in the 7th Amendment for even the strictest of literalists.
Out of curiousity, are the two of you at least sensible enough to accept that it would be LEGAL, however immoral or unlikely, for a State to decriminalise murder, assault, rape etc and thus deliberately descend into anarchy? Or for them to completely abolish public education?
Actually, I think it would by strictest literal interpretation, be legal for that too happen. And the predictable result, federal troops sent in to restore order by any means necessary, would ALSO be entirely legal and enshrined in the Constitution for all statewide cases of anarchy and rebellion.
Apologies if this wasn't clear earlier, but equal protection under the law means equal protection of persons under the law- i.e. protection of their bodies against harm to them.
And again, there are far more forms of harm than mere physical violence. If the law protects against just one narrow form of harm, the protection and rule of law becomes a bad joke.
That only matters regarding intention- to call an interpretation which takes such things into account 'literal' is absurd.
Again, context matters a great deal. The law is often as not created as a specific response to a specific problem, and a strict lexical reading of the law without understanding how and why the law exists is the most shallow possible understanding of it.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

Post by Thanas »

It is almost like Carinthium has no idea of how statutes are interpreted. The literal meaning is only one of at least four accepted options.
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Thanas
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

Post by Thanas »

Carinthium wrote:The difference is between a literal interpretation and a metaphorical interpretation. Basically, to use anything outside the pure literal wording in a literal interpretation is silly. Since "protection" of anything other than the body is non-literal interpretation, it is invalid.
Where does the constitution says that it protects only the body?
Besides, if racial discrimination in general is a form of harm to be protected from then where does it end? What about gender discrimination?
Did you miss how that is illegal for the state (except in some cases like where women are just not physically able to perform the same things)?
What about discrimination against children? (Children are sufficiently inferior to adults that a race of permanent children could be safely called an inferior race, but sometimes their abilities are dismissed in a way that is not justified on the evidence merely because they are children).
Discrimination against children is also illegal if the law says they should be treated the same. You got no case and your frantic attempts to obfuscate the issue are getting tiresome.
"To form a racially clean union" would be intentionalist. As I am repeatedly pointing out, intentions do not factor into this.
Why the heck not? Even if you define something like "title of nobility" you still have to say something with regards to intent for otherwise there would be no Bishops, Cardinals etc. in the USA.
The problem with robbing is also a problem with interpreting clauses such as this- the only way to avoid such textual interpretation problems is with pure literalism.
You are an idiot who thinks literalism should mean "what I think the word means". Otherwise you would have no trouble recognizing that discrimination =/= protection.
Whoever says "education does not matter" can try ignorance
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A decision must be made in the life of every nation at the very moment when the grasp of the enemy is at its throat. Then, it seems that the only way to survive is to use the means of the enemy, to rest survival upon what is expedient, to look the other way. Well, the answer to that is 'survival as what'? A country isn't a rock. It's not an extension of one's self. It's what it stands for. It's what it stands for when standing for something is the most difficult! - Chief Judge Haywood
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

Post by Carinthium »

As I have previously pointed out, there is no such thing as "literal meaning." Lexical meaning is created by the interaction of text with existing structures of meaning in the minds of reader and writer. Your pretense otherwise is hilarious, as is your interpretation of the Constitution.
My basic counter is this- something resembling literal meaning can clearly be put together, or else it would be impossible to put anything into a dictionary. As mentioned in this very thread, anything beyond said meaning would violate a right to understandability as it is impossible for ordinary people to look through matters of legal context.

Basically, a simplification of "literal meaning" would be "proper dictionary meaning".
First and Third are fine, worthwhile endeavors. The Second violates privileges and immunities.
In what way does it do that?
Biting my tongue to avoid the obvious quote, which wouldn't match my position at all. That would have to be a pretty exhaustive criteria for determining who can and cannot be expected to know the law, and riddled with loopholes and exploits.
It would need utterly expert drafting, but it would be an ultimately worthwhile endevour for the results. An easy corrolorary, of course, would be that you can't exploit said clauses if you actually do know the law for whatever reason (thus meaning that when it's important the government can tell people to avoid such problems).
The protection of the law is rooted in a universal right to your own life, liberty and property. A law that protects one and not the other two is a dismal failure by any measure.
So? That's a policy decision, about the merits or demerits of a measure.
Ok, now I call hair-splitting. Leaving aside the legality or morality of a political test, a religious test was included, therefore the test was illegal. You don't get points for stopping for red lights in a stolen car.
PART of the test was illegal. They could keep the other part. (Well, unless the Texan constitution says otherwise. I still need to get round to a more detailed check)
Facetious. That's not what's happening here and even if the charge were accurate, a person could oppose an unconstitutional law on moral grounds, condemn others for being immoral and stupid, and remain entirely self-consistent.
They could, but people were, explicitly or implicitly, citing the Constitution as evidence that the policy was a bad idea. That was what was happening here.
It's a principle much rooted in common law which, oh yeah, is enshrined in the 7th Amendment for even the strictest of literalists.
Could you provide a source for that, please? I'm rather sceptical.
Actually, I think it would by strictest literal interpretation, be legal for that too happen. And the predictable result, federal troops sent in to restore order by any means necessary, would ALSO be entirely legal and enshrined in the Constitution for all statewide cases of anarchy and rebellion.
Yes, the President could send troops in. But it would be unfair to describe the result as "rebellion"- the State would be acting perfectly within it's Constitutional powers. Insane though it may seem, by no definition of the Constitution except one allowing for retroactive law could it possibly be considered rebellion unless the State intended rebellion rather than extreme libertarianism.
And again, there are far more forms of harm than mere physical violence. If the law protects against just one narrow form of harm, the protection and rule of law becomes a bad joke.
Intentions again.
Again, context matters a great deal. The law is often as not created as a specific response to a specific problem, and a strict lexical reading of the law without understanding how and why the law exists is the most shallow possible understanding of it.
Right to understandability.
It is almost like Carinthium has no idea of how statutes are interpreted. The literal meaning is only one of at least four accepted options.
I have already explained why I advocate literalist interpretation. Given the absurdity of the current interpretation system, why should I pay it any attention?

Rules of interpretation that the Founding Fathers knew of and intended to be used for their Constitution are at least plausible- but why consider rules created after their time?
Where does the constitution says that it protects only the body?
Where does it say it protects anything other than the body?
Did you miss how that is illegal for the state (except in some cases like where women are just not physically able to perform the same things)?
Discrimination against children is also illegal if the law says they should be treated the same. You got no case and your frantic attempts to obfuscate the issue are getting tiresome.
So you're biting the bullet, and accepting that it is illegal for the state to reject somebody for a job on the basis of them being a child?
Why the heck not? Even if you define something like "title of nobility" you still have to say something with regards to intent for otherwise there would be no Bishops, Cardinals etc. in the USA.
I already explained this regarding my Philosophy of Law.
You are an idiot who thinks literalism should mean "what I think the word means". Otherwise you would have no trouble recognizing that discrimination =/= protection.
You can discriminate aganist a person and protect them at the same time. Besides, what I consider a "literal meaning" to be is a "proper dictionary meaning"- i.e. the meaning that would be in the dictionary were it perfectly fullfilling its function as a dictionary.
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Re: Constable queried about abortion etc during interview

Post by Terralthra »

Carinthium wrote:
As I have previously pointed out, there is no such thing as "literal meaning." Lexical meaning is created by the interaction of text with existing structures of meaning in the minds of reader and writer. Your pretense otherwise is hilarious, as is your interpretation of the Constitution.
My basic counter is this- something resembling literal meaning can clearly be put together, or else it would be impossible to put anything into a dictionary. As mentioned in this very thread, anything beyond said meaning would violate a right to understandability as it is impossible for ordinary people to look through matters of legal context.

Basically, a simplification of "literal meaning" would be "proper dictionary meaning".
Dictionaries are an attempt (and a poor one, at that) to write down this web of interconnected meaning which lies inside the heads of a reader/writer. They do not function very well, as anyone who has taught (for example) EFL/ESL to non-English speakers would tell you. Someone can have memorized a dictionary, yet be incapable of understanding or producing intelligable English text. This is because words are defined in terms of each other, and are not easily separated out individually.

In this sense, meaning is not simply mathematical, nor is it on a per-word level. You can not, generally speaking, take a sentence of 10 words, replace the 10 words with their definitions, and claim to understand the sentence. For example, "common law" is not the same as "common" "law"; it has a more specific meaning when seen as a phrase. This is not just a legal thing, by the way, this is true of all language.

"No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."

The 1st Section of the Fourteenth Amendment is an excellent example of a complex sentence which can not be easily understood by per-word analysis. For example, saying "nor deny to any person...the equal protection of the laws," only applies to the person, not their property or liberty or whatever, ignores the clause right before it where it says "nor...deprive any person of life, liberty, or property." The three clauses interact in ways that are not apparent on a per-word "dictionary" reading, and pretending one can make sense of a legal document "literally" is stupid.

The people writing this document were politicians, readers of philosophy, statesmen, and lawyers. They didn't use a vernacular dictionary when writing it: it's replete with references to philosophical concepts like property and liberty that are so abstract that they require semantic and philosophical research to understand the terms in which they apply when used.
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