I think it's simpler than that Metahive. From his posts in the three threads he's active in at the moment, he really doesn't understand that a word is a semi-shared conceptual symbol. He's trying to treat them as inarguable facts.
Carinthium, without reading too much of this...
interesting... discourse, how on Earth are you finding that legal rulings make retroactive law?
Your example before was nonsensical. Almost all law falls through from a general case to more specific cases. The most general case (in American jurisprudence) is that "X is Legal." Following that, things can be made illegal - all illegal acts (Y) are a subset of all acts (X) (Y ⊂ X for the more mathematically inclined). Then, a subset of the acts made illegal (Z) can be defined to be legal (Z ⊂ Y ⊂ X). Assuming A ⊂ Y, A is not legal simply because it is a subset of acts Y rather than being Y.
In other words, It's not legal for me to steal you car while wearing a pair of red polka-dotted mukluks simply because I was wearing the mukluks. Crimes are defined in terms of acts.
To take a practical example, in Cal. Pen.Code § 240 assault is defined as:
The stopped watch wrote:240. An assault is an unlawful attempt, coupled with a present ability, to commit a violent injury on the person of another.
That means that an assault must be:
(A) An attempt to cause violent injury
(B) Committed by by someone who is actually able to cause said injury
(C) Not otherwise permitted by law
Obviously, a great number of crimes satisfy those conditions, some a lot more serious than others, so my favorite group of people also wrote CPC § 245(a)(1).
The stopped watch wrote:245. (a) (1) Any person who commits an assault upon the person of another with a deadly weapon or instrument other than a firearm or by any means of force likely to produce great bodily injury shall be punished by imprisonment in the state prison for two, three, or four years, or in a county jail for not exceeding one year, or by a fine not exceeding ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or by both the fine and imprisonment.
Now those two look awfully similar, don't they? Well lets break apart §245(a)(1) into parts.
To violate §245(a)(1) an act must be:
(A) An attempt to cause violent injury
(B) Committed by by someone who is actually able to cause said injury
(C) Not otherwise permitted by law
(D) Committed with a deadly weapon that is NOT a firearm or likely to produce great bodily injury
So, obviously, any act which satisfies §245(a)(1) also satisfies §242. This is where the concept of "Lessor included offenses" comes from. Depending on trial strategy, a suspect may be charged with both or just §245(a)(1). This also leads into the concepts of plea bargaining.
OK, that was a nice and long winded deconstruction of the example, now onto retroactivity. In almost all jurisdictions rulings do not make retroactive law, they say "This is what the law always was, it was just applied improperly." Ruling a law unconstitutional does not make any acts that the law made illegal legal, it says that they were never illegal in the first place. This is NOT a semantic difference.
If a law is passed making Yellow Cars illegal and you paint yours yellow and are jailed, then the court rejects the law, you are entitled to sue for compensation for a bad arrest and imprisonment. You probably won't get it, because the law generally recognizes when people act in good faith, but you are entitled to try.
If, on the other hand, congress repealed the law, you'd stay in jail. Do you understand the difference between the scenarios?