The_Nice_Guy wrote:They had far better science and technology by the 18th century, not the 19th. IMO, scientific advances count for a great deal, much more than other factors like agricultural output, manufacturing capacity, and population.
By the time of the American Revolution, I would say the West had all the tools it needed to accelerate its progress.
I'm starting to notice broken record syndrome here. You haven't dealt with anything I've said, merely repeated your original claim unmodified.
Semantics. What matters is that there was hardly peace throughout the land. Perhaps that was the reason for not industrializing?
It's not just semantics. Civil wars are far more destructive to a country than external wars. Besides, China may have had its share of conflict, but Europe was at war more or less continuously.
As for industrializing, I've already said why China didn't industrialize, and it had nothing to do with culture or the state of conflict.
So how did the Japanese do it? Why them, and not the chinese, with their infinitely greater territory, access to materials, and greater population? Perhaps sheer size was the problem, but industrialization started in Europe as a regional process, not a national one.
The Japanese have always been much better at waging war (especially ground war) than China (or anyone else, for that matter). At the time, the daimyos were battling it out for control of Japan, and needed any edge they could get.
You gotta give us some links or excerpts for that! Frank seems skeptical(actually, so am I).
I'll look for the book.
Trade of what goods? What items? Are you trying to say that cloth and salt are actually equivalent in value to steam engines?
I'm starting to get tired of your shell games. I'm talking about pre-industrial revolution. Why do you keep talking about steam engines and the like?
It's not just trade that's important. It's what that trade consisted of. If you compare two trade networks, one with exchanges of grains and fabric, while the other consists of TVs and VCRs, obviously you would consider the one with agricultural products and garments to be the 'backward, stagnant' one. And yes, this is really an exagerration. The Europeans dealt with items that were often worth more in value. Sugar, tobacco, opium, for example.
Got a source on that?
Future expeditions might have paid off. Damn Yongle for dying early.
China could have dominated the entire South East Asian region if they had dared to establish colonies. And once the importance of rubber came up in the 19th century... well, we would have been sitting pretty.
Had they "dared to establish colonies" they would have bankrupted themselves. The trade went on within China and between Asian powers dwarfs anyone else's trade. The best analogy I can think of goes like this: Europe is like Montana, while Asian powers are like California. If you're in Montana, the benefits from sending out expeditions are enormous, since what you produce yourself is insignificant, but if you're in California, expeditions don't even begin to pay for themselves, since you're already the center of activity.
So why not chinese imperialism? It's good to be on top of the world.
Even if we accept your assumption that imperialism is always beneficial even under radically different circumstances, without industry Europe would have just wrested their colonies away.
But yes, there was very little China could have gotten from its contacts that it didn't have itself. Save perhaps for metals, as you had mentioned. But then, they never saw much use for metal beyond weapons and tools, did they? Which brings me back to my first point. Unwilling, and unable to change.
You're starting to annoy me, and I'm starting to think you're doing it on purpose. You know damn good and well (I hope) that their inability to predict an industrial revolution centuries in the future does not equal "unwilling, and unable to change".
I don't think so. The culture persisted all the way until the start of the 20th century, by which time the imperial government should have uncovered or imported the mining methods necessary to further squeeze out mineral resources. Even after the Opium Wars, adavnced methods for mining were already present, possibly in China. Why didn't they industralise then?
But perhaps it was too little and too late.
I give two paragraphs of explanation and examples and you refute it with "I don't think so"?
The culture persisted until it was no longer convenient. If culture is not tied to present situation, then what is the mechanism for cultural change? If you're right, then culture shouldn't ever change. Of course, there's also the question of where culture came from in the first place. Do you think it's genetic or something?
Oh yes. Spain(and Austria, Italy) managed to achieve a certain level of industrialization. They did import machinery and techniques to modernize their traditional crafts. However, they remained agrarian based economies, because they had neither the labor for industrial production nor purchasing power for industrial goods. But they did have raw materials and primary products for their neighbours.
Are you blind? I said they didn't industrialize because they didn't have good navigable waterways, not because they didn't have the raw materials. Besides, the facts that they didn't have purchasing power was because they didn't have good navigable waterways, hence no cheap transportation, hence no significant trade, hence poor country. Lack of purchasing power is a symptom, not a cause.
It wsn't just rivers. The lack of well-built roads in Spain was also a factor. In many history texts, it was mentioned that the social structures, agricultural organization, and commercial policies in the European countries which did not industrialize all hindered the adoption of new methods, machines, and production. These were reasons why industrialization did not take place in Spain, Austria, and Italy. It wasn't just natural disadvantages. And when they did industrialize, it was mostly symbol without substance. Obviously, these countries were hardly at the forefront of colonialism, much less the imperial powers like Britain, France, and Germany. In fact, they seem rather similar to China!
Cart before the horse. How were they supposed to colonize without trade and industry? As for the social structures, policies, etc., that's also cart before the horse. Those facets of their culture existed because they didn't have good trade, because they didn't have cheap transportation, because they didn't have good navigable waterways.
China, with a population of 100 million, surely had the labor, and the purchasing power. They had the agricultural organization, the trade network in place. Sure, lack of metal was a problem. But the bigger one laid in its culture.
The lack of metal was a "problem"!?! How are you supposed to industrialize with no fucking iron? That's more than just a problem, and you haven't produced a shred of argumentation to refute my claim that culture was caused by those realities, not the other way around.
You'll have to show that chinese merchants and entrepeneurs were indeed more receptive.
Why do I have the burden of proof? You're claiming that merchants and entrepreneurs in China, contrary to everywhere else in the world and the very concept of entrepreneurship and merchanthood, weren't receptive to ideas that would increase their wealth and standing significantly. That sounds like an extraordinary claim to me. Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence.
Industrilization occurred at regional, not national levels. The government doesn't need to be an active participant. It only needed to create the conditions conducive to industrialization. But China's one didn't do that.
This is a peculiar claim, how is industrialization that you yourself just said was regional and not national supposed to be stopped by government inaction? Maybe this is a good time to talk about Chinese silver. In the late 15th century, China was on a paper money standard that had collapsed. Despite the government doing absolutely everything in it's power to prevent the people from switching to silver as a currency, it happened. Whoops! Looks like I just refuted your asinine claim that the Chinese people wouldn't change their society in major ways if it were possible and beneficial.
Then again, the monopolization of metals by the state might have something to do with the fact that they could not build any factories.
Yeah that's it, especially seeing as how Europe didn't have resource monopolies, oh wait...
That doesn't change the fact they were
bashed up.
After the industrial revolution. Concession accepted.
The superiority might not have existed before the revolution, but it certainly did after it. But before the revolution, what was it about the Europeans that enabled them to have the revolution in the first place? It's not just geographical reasons.
That's the spirit! State that it's not just geographical reasons over and over and it will come true! There's no place like home, there's no place like home... You're not a creationist, are you?
But trade wasn't the only factor in determining industrialization and/or superiority. Just because somebody has a greater volume of trade doesn't automatically confer on them 'developed nation' status.
It's a pretty strong indicator. And China was light years more developed than Europe before the industrial revolution.
The inward-looking trait isn't just about trade. It's about being receptive to new ideas, which the chinese, at the time, were not! If chinese merchants were, as you have said, receptive to new ideas, why didn't we see garment factories springing up in China? Light manufacturing industries for goods? It doesn't take much metal nor fuel!
China produced enough silk products to clothe basically the entire world. I shit you not, everyone from the natives toiling away in Spanish mines to European aristocracy was wearing different grades of Chinese silk. Their production and distribution networks were absolutely amazing. Whoops! Just refuted your asinine claim again. How about when the population of China
tripled after the sweet potato was invented because the previously barren northern reaches of China, great for producing sweet potato but not rice was colonized at a phenomenal rate? I've got news for you, every society is hostile to change at some level, and there is no evidence (you certainly haven't produced any) that the Chinese were any more hostile to any than anyone else, and plenty of evidence against it. I've produced no less than 3 separate examples off the top of my head.
Something was obviously preventing them from doing so. Whether the merchants refused to invest, or whether the government didn't allow them, is moot. It all stemmed from the value system.
See above.
Oh yes. The Europeans were smart to be middlemen, earning something for practically little effort. That's called being clever.
It was the idea of the Chinese and Japanese, not theirs.
Chinese had greed. But not enough ambition, and not enough curiosity. They regarded the knowledge of the past as infallible, and that progress could only be made in incremental steps.
Bullshit. See above.
You missed the point. The europeans managed to break through to a new understanding of nature. They managed to realize that their past recovered knowledge is fallible. The chinese, unfortunately, did not.
Bullshit. See above.
The Enlightenment was just as important as the Industrial Revolution
By European standards, the Chinese were already enlightened. They didn't have a thousand year Dark Age period of cultural regress, and didn't need a sudden surge in progressive anti-religious thinking.
True, but then they leapt ahead, didn't they. Again, perhaps it was those 'barbaric' values that helped them. It wasn't just geographical advantages.
There's no place like home, there's no place like home...
It would have been very, very different. China might now be a modern state on par with the United States.
*dreams of world where everybody has to learn chinese*
No way. They couldn't have industrialized back then for very clear geographical reasons. They started to industrialize in a big way in the 1960s for two reasons. 1) The iron that was previously inaccesible became available because of better mining technology. 2) Global trade allowed them to get access to that which they lacked. Actually, the recent (relatively) monstrous surges in industrialization and modernization coming from Japan, Korea, and China are not so much some freak aberration but things finally returning to normal after 150 years of a freak aberration where European and European descendent (U.S.) powers were ahead of Asian powers. It's quite possible that everyone very well might have to learn Chinese, Japanese, or Korean within the next few centuries. Then again, there might be another shakeup that no one saw coming (like the industrial revolution) that could catapult virtually anyone to the head of the world.
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