Yes, you are, and no, you aren't, or at least not entirely. I quote from your own cited article: "A reverse causal association was also possible. For example, increases in firearm homicide rates could have led to efforts by state residents to acquire guns, thus increasing gun ownership levels." Furthermore: "We conducted an ecological study with large aggregates (states) representing the units of analysis. This introduced the possibility that an unknown confounder could explain the observed relationship." They do, to be fair, claim this is unlikely because of the number of other variables controlled for, but such techniques are A) of uncertain effectiveness in such autocorrelated data, and B) still don't address the direction of causality. Gun ownership and gun deaths are statistically significant correlates, nothing more or less. As the study authors themselves say, "it is not possible in a panel study such as ours to determine causality."Channel72 wrote:I am not misunderstanding anything. I am telling you you how the authors of the study themselves interpret the data. They see gun ownership (or wide availability of guns) as a statistically significant predictor of gun violence.Esquire wrote:Channel72: you are misunderstanding the statistical concepts of correlation and aggregation.
I, however, am not an amateur debater. I am a member of the medical community you mention, specifically and formally qualified to comment on statistical interpretations of public health problems. We use statistical correlations to inform experimental (/interventionary) approaches to solving public health problems. There is very little evidence that focusing specifically on gun laws actually accomplishes anything; there is, however, significant evidence that broader approaches are quite effective, for example the Perry preschool program. It is a mistake to treat gun deaths* as anything other than a single instance of the many negative effects of endemic poverty among and (therefore, see again autocorrelation) discrimination against US minority populations. Single-axis solutions do not work, both according to MKSheppard's cited data and because it is extremely and increasingly difficult to pass more restrictive gun laws in this country.Yeah, I know amateur debaters on the Internet love to repeat the phrase "correlation is not causation", but medical professionals don't fucking care. In fact, nobody cares that in the realm of deductive logic, correlation != causation. Medical/health studies that find correlations use inductive reasoning to argue for cause and effect. The Medical Community uses correlations ALL the fucking time to affect public health/safety measures. For example, studies show that consumption of red meat is highly correlated with colon cancer, but there's no precisely known causation for this. But the point is, your doctor will tell you that if you eat red meat every single day, you're a certain percentage more likely to get colon cancer than if you didn't, even if your doctor can't tell you exactly why. And of course, even if you never eat red meat, you can still get colon cancer. And it's the same thing here. The rate of gun ownership is a statistically significant predictor of gun violence, among many other factors.There's some autocorrelation as well, between race, poverty, crime, and gun homicides among other variables, further muddying things. Correlation is not causation.
*This does not address the... ~50%, I think, of gun deaths which are suicides; this is a separate - although related, see again autocorrelation - and similarly complex problem with just as many contributing factors.