AIDS Again!

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AIDS Again!

Post by The_Nice_Guy »

Since we were discussing it on the SARS topic, let's open it up again. Some people accused me of conspiracy theory.

Well, abusive ad hominem attacks are hardly unknown here, eh? Even if I'm indulging in such PCT, is that relevant to the issue at hand? No? Then why bring it up?

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All of us are familiar with the claim that HIV causes AIDS. This is the message we hear everyday, everywhere, to the level that I consider it propaganda(persuasion).

I oppose this claim.

AIDS stands for “Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome”. The first three words, “Acquired Immune Deficiency”, refers to the general decrease in a body’s T-cell count, or more specifically, the CD4 T-Cells. “Syndrome”, refers to the clinical symptoms that result from that decrease in the CD4 T-cell count, which in turn leads to opportunistic infections by what we term as “AIDS” diseases like Karposi’s sarcoma(now removed from the list), pneumonia, and meningitis.

The Center of Disease Control in America, after Robert Gallo’s announcement of his discovery of HIV, Human Immunodeficiency Virus, as the causal agent of AIDS, amended the definition after his discovery.
CDC's definition of AIDS includes all HIV-infected people who have fewer than 200 CD4 positive T cells per cubic millimeter of blood. (Healthy adults usually have CD4 positive T-cell counts of 1,000 or more.) In addition, the definition includes 26 clinical conditions that affect people with advanced HIV disease. Most of these conditions are opportunistic infections that generally do not affect healthy people. In people with AIDS, these infections are often severe and sometimes fatal because the immune system is so ravaged by HIV that the body cannot fight off bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites, and other microbes.

HIV, meanwhile, is defined as the virus that causes AIDS. It was ‘discovered’ by Robert Gallo and Luc Montaigner, two virologists. Strangely enough, Gallo’s report was [i]never [/i]reviewed by his peers, and his scientific discovery was announced without going through the prescribed steps for checking the veracity of the research.

On one hand, we have the CDC definition of AIDS, which needs HIV as part of its criteria, while HIV is described as the virus that causes AIDS.

That if A(HIV) causes B(AIDS), then is B(AIDS) necessarily a result of A(HIV)? According to the definition, that is exactly what they had laid out, with the problem that the definition are interdependent as well! That A(HIV) is defined as something that causes B(AIDS), while B(AIDS) is defined as something caused by A(HIV)! Circular logic is being used here, and it should be setting off warning alarms right about now!

Worse, HIV has never been isolated and purified according to the standards laid out for all retroviruses with the reverse transcriptase gene back in oh, 1973. It consist of a series of steps involving centrifugation and electron microscopy.

A group did try to do it according to the standards, but their results were, uh… less than spectacular. Suffice to say, nobody still knows exactly what HIV looks like. All those images we see on TV, the papers, etc are just artist impressions, and not backed by any electron microscope photograph of a HIV culture. Unlike many other retrovirus samples, I might add.

So… no photograph, isolation not done, and we are supposed to believe this virus exists?

Okay then, how about the HIV being an infectious agent? Again, problems aplenty.

In biology and medicine, there’s a specific set of criteria, called Koch’s Postulates, an agent must fulfill before it can be classed as an infectious agent. While these postulates were devised way back in the 19th century, before we had such fun with viruses and prions, they are still an important pillar of microbiology, and are found still to apply to viruses and prions.

These four postulates are
1. The specific organism should be shown to be present in all cases of animals suffering from a specific disease but should not be found in healthy animals. 
2. The specific microorganism should be isolated from the diseased animal and grown in pure culture on artificial laboratory media. 
3. This freshly isolated microorganism, when inoculated into a healthy laboratory animal, should cause the same disease seen in the original animal. 
4. The microorganism should be reisolated in pure culture from the experimental infection. 

HIV, as accepted in its unpurified and insufficiently isolated cultures, has not fulfilled Koch’s postulates. So how did we accept it as [i]the[/i] causal agent of AIDS? Hmmm…

The really strange part is when scientists tried to find the exact mechanism for determining how HIV kills the CD4 T-cells. HIV, or rather the HIV that they claim to have, grows quite happily in vitro with those T-cells. No problem. Except one.

They aren’t killing the T-cells. Even in patients with terminal(death stage) AIDS, the amount of HIV found is almost inconsequential, too small a number to have caused such massive depletion of the T-cells.

To sum it up, the hypothesis that HIV causes AIDS cannot be accepted under any scientific criteria. Without clear evidence, we cannot continue believing that HIV exists, that it causes AIDS.
Okay, let's start with possible problems with the premises.

My basic premises are simple.

P1: Definition of AIDS as a disease.
P2: If agent fulfills Koch's postulates, agent is cause of disease.
P3: To fulfill the postulates, the virus must first be isolated.
P4: HIV has not been isolated according to the accepted methodology.

You can argue with P1, that my definition is wrong. However, the alternative definition which includes HIV as part of its definition uses circular logic, which is unacceptable. Unless somebody has a better idea, hmm?

To argue with P2 would be... well, tough.

P3 is one of the postulates, and crucial to the rest of the postulates.

P4 is the most debatable part. Has HIV been isolated using the retroviral technique? I'm not talking about a scanty particles here and there, like the one I've shown you before. I want a proper EM photo with dozens, hundreds of identical viri particles all identified as HIV. The onus of proof is on the HIV=AIDS proponents.

It's entirely possible that tomorrow somebody might manage to isolate HIV, thereby debunking my 4th premise, and thereby proving the rest of the premises. But...

That won't happen. Because there's no HIV in the first place.

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Post by Frank Hipper »

Oh no, not this again.
The_Nice_Guy wrote:That won't happen. Because there's no HIV in the first place.
I'm not informed enough to get into a debate, but that is one hell of a claim. Got anything to make a believer out of me?
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Post by The_Nice_Guy »

Well, you can see if you can poke any holes into the current HIV=AIDS hypothesis.

Simply start from the definition of AIDS, and work from there.

The current definition is here.
http://www.cdc.gov/hiv/pubs/faq/faq2.htm

Ask yourself, can the definition be accepted? Does it employ circular logic, especially concerning the HIV as cause of AIDS and AIDS as the effect of HIV?

A is defined as the cause of B, and B is defined as caused by A. Does it appear here?

Next, if you think that it's wrong, look for another definition, which existed before HIV was announced. It simply uses the CD4 T-Cell count as the physical evidence for AIDS. Below a certain figure, a person would be classified as having AIDS. Note that this definition does not attempt to bring in any cause for the CD4 T-Cell depletion.

Then work from there. Has HIV fulfilled Koch's postulates? Has it been isolated? Does it cause CD4 T-Cell depletion? Never mind about the how yet. Just look for the evidence that HIV is a necessary and sufficient cause for CD4 T-Cell depletion.

If you find the evidence wanting, or not available at all, then you have to accept that there is something very lacking in the basic theory for HIV.

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Post by Frank Hipper »

Let me pose this to you, what is it people that test positive for HIV are actually testing positive for?
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Post by The_Nice_Guy »

Let me pose this to you, what is it people that test positive for HIV are actually testing positive for?
Anthing under the sun, except HIV, coz it don't exist. :wink:

Okay, okay, I'll be serious. The HIV tests test for the presence of specific antibodies, which are caused/created by the presence of HIV in the body. However, later they found that the antibodies tested for might actually be created due to other factors(bacteria, other viri etc), and not HIV. In other words, the antibodies tested for are not unique to HIV, and may arise in the body from other circumstances.

This is compounded by the simple fact that HIV has not been isolated, which made it impossible to find specific antibodies for detection.

Different brands use different antibodies as their benchmarks, which makes for some confusion as nobody can agree on which is the most accurate. The worst part of it was that the tests were not reproducible.

Also, there have been first hand accounts where HIV positives said that the questionaires they answered before testing had an impact on the final result. Comparing homos and heteros, all else being equal, the homos would have the higher chance of getting a positive result, simply by dint of their sexual orientation. This is not fair.

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Post by Colonel Olrik »

Also, there have been first hand accounts where HIV positives said that the questionaires they answered before testing had an impact on the final result. Comparing homos and heteros, all else being equal, the homos would have the higher chance of getting a positive result, simply by dint of their sexual orientation. This is not fair.
You're an insult to the medical class everywhere. Go and have yourself tested and then say this again. Here, we dont even have to fill a fucking questionaire.

A bunch of HIV positives trying to find an escape from jail clause by claiming sexual descrimination are not impressive news.

Fuck, I'm not starting this debate yet again, even because I lack the skills in the field. But your Wall of Ignorance is begining to grate my nerves.

By the way: You'll find some researchers who will deny the HIV-AIDS relation, just like you'll find creationist scientists. That won't make them right, and the vast majority of medical researchers who do see the relation wrong.
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Post by Sir Sirius »

The_Nice_Guy wrote:Okay, okay, I'll be serious. The HIV tests test for the presence of specific antibodies, which are caused/created by the presence of HIV in the body. However, later they found that the antibodies tested for might actually be created due to other factors(bacteria, other viri etc), and not HIV. In other words, the antibodies tested for are not unique to HIV, and may arise in the body from other circumstances.
What about PCR and bDNA tests?
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Post by The Duchess of Zeon »

1. The specific organism should be shown to be present in all cases of animals suffering from a specific disease but shold not be found in healthy animals.
2. The specific microorganism should be isolated from the diseased animal and grown in pure culture on artificial laboratory media.

3. This freshly isolated microorganism, when inoculated into a healthy laboratory animal, should cause the same disease seen in the original animal.

4. The microorganism should be reisolated in pure culture from the experimental infection.
Yes, we do have viruses now, and we also had them, recognized them, and treated them before the retrovirus standards were laid out. You're narrowing the evidence to fit your argument.

Koch's Postulates are satisfied for HIV to any reasonable standard.

Honestly, I can't understand people like you. What do you want us to do? Declare HIV doesn't exist? Even if we don't have the ts crossed and is dotted like you'd demand, we know it isn't something we already know about - and thus, isn't treatable. We also know that it is spread through certain vectors that would cause the rate of infection to increase if we stopped scaring people with the thread of being infected by it. I don't think the current adverts are frightening enough, for that matter.

And on that note, I'll leave it to the experts, who can probably wander over here and rip this up even more than my paltry effort. Do you really have nothing better to do?
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Post by The_Nice_Guy »

Sir Sirius wrote:What about PCR and bDNA tests?
How does a virus cause disease? It spreads throughout the body's own cells, using their mechanisms to create copies of itself, thereby breaking down the body.

Obviously, for the body to regress to the state where there is the chance of death, it follows that there must be massive damage done to a/the system, be it immune, respiratory, etc.

Massive damage of these systems can only be caused(yeah, yeah, so I'm working my way backwards, abductively :oops: ) by the proliferation of the viri. In other words, only a large amount of viri attacking the system cells(causing the cells to die etc) could result in failure of said system.

So for HIV to cause AIDS, it must be present in significant quantities to attack the CD4 T-cells, whittling their numbers to the point where these cells cannot keep out other diseases that we identify as secondary infections, which in turn can cause death.

The problem with using PCR as a test, is that it's a qualitative test, not a quantitative one. Picking out a few isolated viri DNA and then using PCR to multiply their numbers is like counting the number of working cars in a scrapheap by the number of used bumpers. You can see if there are any used cars at all, but it cannot tell you how many of them there were originally.

Uh, wrong analogy. Sorry. :oops:

Okay, how about this. Let's say I have certain X number of a virus 'Alpha' per liter of blood in my body. They are not present in any significant quantity, and not causing me any distress at the moment. Somebody comes along and extracts a sample of my blood, takes the few 'Alpha' viri present, uses PCR to multiply their numbers, and then claims I'm sick because he can find a massive quantity of viri in my blood after PCR, in 100X per liter of blood. Is this correct? The only conclusion you can say is that yes, 'Alpha' was present, but the amount of 'Alpha' is not the final result. Only if they applied the multiplier they used(eg. 100) in the PCR could they obtain the original amount of 'Alpha'.

While it can be said that this can be used to help detect those already infected with virus, and are in dormancy, the problem with HIV is that even in terminally ill patients, the amount of virus is still too small to have accounted for the massive depletion of the CD4 T-cell count. So they use PCR to 'boost' their results.

In fact, Kary Mullis, the inventor of the PCR, has spoken out strongly against the use of PCR in testing for HIV. He's one of the leading dissidents.

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Post by The_Nice_Guy »

The Duchess of Zeon wrote:Yes, we do have viruses now, and we also had them, recognized them, and treated them before the retrovirus standards were laid out. You're narrowing the evidence to fit your argument.
Treating viruses? I'm sure you know that there is no cure for a virus, only vaccination, and the body's own immune system.

As for narrowing the evidence to fit my argument, I'm not. The evidence is there, or rather, NOT there! There is no isolate of HIV obtained from a AIDS victim anywhere in the world, isolated using the accepted methodology for retroviruses!

Unless you're saying that the methodology is wrong in the first place, which is possible. But all other retroviruses have been successfully isolated using that methodology, but not HIV! Applying Occam's Razor, which is the far likelier explanation? That HIV does not exist, because it cannot be isolated, or that the methodology is wrong, failing to detect HIV?
Koch's Postulates are satisfied for HIV to any reasonable standard.
No, I've said it many times. They have not satisfied Koch's postulates. HIV has not been isolated using the accepted methodology of banding cultures supernatants in density gradients. They have not used that isolated sample to satisfy the other postulates.

Furthremore, please provide evidence that HIV causes AIDS. Uh, by all means use Robert Gallo's original 1984 report.
Honestly, I can't understand people like you. What do you want us to do? Declare HIV doesn't exist? Even if we don't have the ts crossed and is dotted like you'd demand, we know it isn't something we already know about - and thus, isn't treatable.
Yes. That's exactly what I want. Declare that HIV theory has not been proven satisfactorily yet. And then start from square one again, just as we're doing with SARS. Right now, the HIV hypothesis we're using has arguably caused more harm than good. The drugs the patients have been taking are killing them faster than the virus itself, though presently they have started encouraging people to stay off the drugs as long as they're healthy, which is good.
We also know that it is spread through certain vectors that would cause the rate of infection to increase if we stopped scaring people with the thread of being infected by it.
We know? Sorry, we don't know. If we stopped scaring people, would more people test positive? It's only conjecture, and not fact. Hell, the number of infected people depends on the inaccurate HIV tests in the first place!
I don't think the current adverts are frightening enough, for that matter.
Scaring otherwise healthy people into taking drugs that rip up their body internally? Sure, you do that.
And on that note, I'll leave it to the experts, who can probably wander over here and rip this up even more than my paltry effort. Do you really have nothing better to do?
As of right now, only the Duchess has disputed my premises, claiming that HIV has been isolated and that it has fulfilled Koch's Postulates. She has not provided any links, EM photos or reports as evidence of her claim. Somebody please provide the necessary evidence, if they can be found on the net.

Otherwise, it's been questions, as well as the expected ad hominem attacks. Well, at least it's fun.

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Post by Admiral Valdemar »

This is a can o' worms I'm not opening, but I'll say that there ARE anti-viral drugs other than normal vaccination programmes. Infact, SARS is about to be the first test subject for an altered antisense therapy created by AVI BioPharma. Juts typically anti-viral drugs are useless or non-existant.

In anycase, if an HIV doesn't exist like you say so, something is certainly causing these AIDS cases. Care to elaborate on just what that may be (don't say a cocktail of co-infectious agents)?
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Post by Cyborg Stan »

Here's a few questions.

What is CD4, CCR5 and CXCR4? What are the implications of defects in such?

For what purpose and unit can you match up .1 to for HIV?
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Post by The_Nice_Guy »

Admiral Valdemar wrote:In anycase, if an HIV doesn't exist like you say so, something is certainly causing these AIDS cases. Care to elaborate on just what that may be (don't say a cocktail of co-infectious agents)?
Who knows, it may be a cocktail of co-infectious agents! :wink:

Okay, sorry, bad joke. The most common theories being bandied around the dissident circle(everybody has a pet theory though) are drugs(including the HIV treatment drugs themselves), lifestyles(such intangibles like stress and exhaustion), malnutrition(this one doesn't wash in the US, but may apply to Africa), overloaded immune system(Mullis' theory, which I'm highly skeptical about).

For example, the initial AIDS cases were overwhelmingly gay drug users(something like 90-95%). There was substantial evidence that their immune systems could have been hammered by the drugs they were ingesting for their uh... activities.

Later on, after the HIV theory appeared, and the AIDS drugs like AZT appeared, we had HIV positive people taking the drugs. Unfortunately, it is well known that AZT is highly toxic, and kills the immune system as well. AIDs appeared in thes people. We might never know if AZT or HIV was the cause of AIDS in these patients, though the Concorde study suggsts that AZT might be the cause.

Nowadays, it's the various drug cocktails that are slowly whittling down the patients' bodies. It's a good thing that they've revised their 'hit hard, hit early' doctrine to one which encourages staying off the drugs for as long as possible. With this, I anticipate a decrease in true AIDS(that is, immune system breakdown and death) figures in developed nations, if it hasn't occured already.

Also, there's been a theory floating around of immunosuppressive agents used to treat chronic illnesses being the cause of AIDS. Here the literaure seems pretty sure, as CDC director Fauci conducted several experiments in the 70s demonstrating the toxicity of such compounds towards the immune system.

Malnutrition, causing a direct weakening of a body's immune system, seems an obvious cause. This might apply most to Africa. However, it is really difficult to tell the real AIDS cases in Africa from the HIV positives, due to the current definition used.

The overloaded immune system theory by Mullis is that the constant swapping of sexual partners resulted in many pathogens attacking the body, and the immune system is gradually worn down in fighting them off.

To my knowledge there's not been a serious study conducted to test these hypothesis, because that's what they are now. Hypothesis without any experimental basis. Peter Duesberg can claim his drug theory by using stats from years back, but I would prefer a current study specifically to examine a) the effect of nitrates and b). long term effects of AIDS drugs, on both HIV positive and negative people(better use animals though; is PETA going to kill me? :wink: ).

A determined strenuous effort to isolate HIV should also be carried out, if only to rule it out completely or to affirm it once and for all, leaving no room for doubt(forget about what Feyman sez!). That this was not done back in 1984 was a grevious oversight.

So what do we know? I would hesitate to say nothing, because HIV research did yield a great deal of information about the human body. However, from all the evidence we have so far, we only know that HIV is not the cause of AIDS.

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Post by PainRack »

1.Crying foul definition is changing the subject.Even if we were to revert to the old definition of AIDS,as in young healthy adults suffering suppressed immune systems,it will not reflect on whether HIV causes AIDS or not.

2.HIV does fulfill Kosh Postulates.

3.HIV does cause AIDS.Although we have isolated cases of health care workers being exposed to HIV and not getting AIDS,we also have isolated cases of Health Care workers being exposed to HIV and getting AIDS.Furthermore,due to the spread of HIV in Europe,we're pretty certain that its being caused by a pathogen.That is the only possible explaination for how blood donors can infect others with AIDS.

4.PCR and other tests all indicate that HIV arises in all AIDS cases.To put it simply,there hasn't been a significant case of AIDs,without HIV antibodies being present.

5.Last but not least,HIV does not kill off T-cells.All current medical research indicates that instead,HIV causes the body to become incapable of producing healthy T-cells to replace naturally dying cells.

For your explaination that HIV must kill T-cells,then,AIDS shouldn't be a chronic disease but an acute one instead.
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Post by Medicus »

:shock:

Well, I've lurked here for many months, and seem some odd posts, but this one is really out there.

Just some background info, I have an B.S. in Molecular and Cellular Biology, and am currently finishing my second year in med school.
The_Nice_Guy wrote: Treating viruses? I'm sure you know that there is no cure for a virus, only vaccination, and the body's own immune system.
This statement is just flat out wrong, and hopefully it isn't indicative of your knowledge regarding virology. There are several drugs that are effectively used to treat viral infections; however, they work in a different manner than anti-bacterial drugs. The main target of anti-virals is DNA or RNA intracellular replication. For instance, the drug acyclovir is a purine analog which when incorporated into a growing viral DNA strand halts further replication. This drug has been shown to stop viral growth both in vitro and in vivo. There are many more types of anti-virals, each attacking a different step in viral replication, from uncoating and cell invasion, to packaging of the completed virus particle.

I don't have time right now to discuss any of the other points, have to study, but maybe later tonight.
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Post by Admiral Valdemar »

Medicus wrote::shock:

Well, I've lurked here for many months, and seem some odd posts, but this one is really out there.

Just some background info, I have an B.S. in Molecular and Cellular Biology, and am currently finishing my second year in med school.
The_Nice_Guy wrote: Treating viruses? I'm sure you know that there is no cure for a virus, only vaccination, and the body's own immune system.
This statement is just flat out wrong, and hopefully it isn't indicative of your knowledge regarding virology. There are several drugs that are effectively used to treat viral infections; however, they work in a different manner than anti-bacterial drugs. The main target of anti-virals is DNA or RNA intracellular replication. For instance, the drug acyclovir is a purine analog which when incorporated into a growing viral DNA strand halts further replication. This drug has been shown to stop viral growth both in vitro and in vivo. There are many more types of anti-virals, each attacking a different step in viral replication, from uncoating and cell invasion, to packaging of the completed virus particle.

I don't have time right now to discuss any of the other points, have to study, but maybe later tonight.
Thanks for backing me up. :P
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Post by The_Nice_Guy »

PainRack wrote:1.Crying foul definition is changing the subject.Even if we were to revert to the old definition of AIDS,as in young healthy adults suffering suppressed immune systems,it will not reflect on whether HIV causes AIDS or not.
In order to determine causality, we need a working definition of AIDs first. We cannot put the cart before the horse here.
2.HIV does fulfill Kosh Postulates.
It's been said so many times it's not funny anymore. Where's the proof of isolation, reinfection, and the ever elusive EM photo?

It's like in the past when people claimed the earth was flat because 'everybody knew it'.
3.HIV does cause AIDS.Although we have isolated cases of health care workers being exposed to HIV and not getting AIDS,we also have isolated cases of Health Care workers being exposed to HIV and getting AIDS.Furthermore,due to the spread of HIV in Europe,we're pretty certain that its being caused by a pathogen.That is the only possible explaination for how blood donors can infect others with AIDS.
Sorry, but these were only anecdotal reports and not published in any scientific journal. While this can be picky, it can also be seen that the rate of accidental infection for health care workers for AIDS patients is very much lower than for other infectious diseases(eg. hepitatis).

And the phrase 'isolated cases' says it all.

And beware of confusing the spread of HIV with the actual incidence of AIDS. HIV tests are still a real mess, even with repeated tests, because nobody can be sure if the antibodies detected are indeed caused by the presence of HIV!
4.PCR and other tests all indicate that HIV arises in all AIDS cases.To put it simply,there hasn't been a significant case of AIDs,without HIV antibodies being present.
Outright lie. The amount of 'HIV viri' found in terminally ill AIDS patients is pathetically low. Compare to a disease like the flu.
Postulate 2: The germ must be isolated from other germs and from the host's body. The amounts of HIV in AIDS patients are typically so low that the virus must be isolated indirectly from a patient, only after first isolating huge numbers of cells from the patient and then reactivating the virus. In classical diseases, enough active virus is present to isolable directly from the blood or affected tissue; anywhere from one million to one billion units of virus per milliliter of body fluid can be found during the time most viruses cause , and viruses of the same class as HIV are found at levels between 100,000 and 10 million units per milliliter. HIV, on the other hand, is usually found in less than five units and never in more than a few thousand units per milliliter of blood plasma.
And like I've said, using PCR is a cop out. Yes, it can tell you if an item is present, but it cannot give you an good estimate of the original amount of the item.
5.Last but not least,HIV does not kill off T-cells.All current medical research indicates that instead,HIV causes the body to become incapable of producing healthy T-cells to replace naturally dying cells.
This is a good possibility. However, keep in mind this: "What HIV are they using?" And how exactly does a virus create such an effect, if not by infecting the lymphocyte producers(in the lymph nodes) in the marrow? If so, then a substantial amount of HIV should be found in this part of the immune system, or at least enough to account for the greatly reduced influx of CD4 T-cells into the system. But results have shown otherwise. The amount of HIV found is still too low to have any sort of impact on the immune system(perhaps a cumulative effect over time though...).
For your explaination that HIV must kill T-cells,then,AIDS shouldn't be a chronic disease but an acute one instead.
Well, according to the 'slow acting virus' theory being bandied about a few years ago by the HIV group, HIV can be a chronic disease because it kills T-cells 'slowly'. Are you disputing their explanation? :D

The latest theory of the HIV virus acting by restricting the supply of T-cells might yet be proven... In any case, it seems highly unlikely that any viral infection would remain in such a 'slow state' without a geometric progression towards full depletion of the immune system.

If they can just isolate the blasted virus! Sigh. :x

And about viral cures, thanks for the info. So, these are cures, right? And what's the specificity of these anti-virals? Since they work on DNA and RNA, won't they have an effect on the body's own cellular reproduction?

Of course, I should give AZT an honorable mention as the first of the antivirals, since it's a DNA chain terminator. Make of it what you will.
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Of course, now I know all antivirals on the market are more toxic to the virus than to the host body. But think for a moment. With the present state of HIV tests, how can one be sure that the antivirals in a seropositive patient really is attacking the present HIV? Because if HIV is not present, then well, it's almost as good as feeding the patient poison.

And then there's still the problem of identifying the genetic structure of HIV so that the most accurate 'targeting' can be done. Without isolation(despite what Duesberg says), we cannot make any conclusions on what constitutes HIV.

Which reminds me again that the present drug therapy method of 'hit later if needed' is an excellent idea.

A viral 'magic bullet' may be on the way soon. Even if HIV is not cured(due to the uh... problems), at least there's hope for SARS.

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Post by Ravencrow »

And like I've said, using PCR is a cop out. Yes, it can tell you if an item is present, but it cannot give you an good estimate of the original amount of the item
er... yes it can. The routein labs usually run PCR with standardise postive controls that contain known initial copy numbers, coupled with fluorescense on the primers or probes, one can actually determine the initial copy number in the sample. These days, PCR machines can measure product increase as they run.
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Post by RedImperator »

Medicus wrote::shock:

Well, I've lurked here for many months, and seem some odd posts, but this one is really out there.

Just some background info, I have an B.S. in Molecular and Cellular Biology, and am currently finishing my second year in med school...
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Post by PainRack »

The_Nice_Guy wrote: In order to determine causality, we need a working definition of AIDs first. We cannot put the cart before the horse here.
And?Does it make a difference whether we classify AIDS as an immunity deficiency disease,in which healthy T-cells disappear from the immune system,thus leaving the victim prey to a host of parasitic disease?
It's been said so many times it's not funny anymore. Where's the proof of isolation, reinfection, and the ever elusive EM photo?

It's like in the past when people claimed the earth was flat because 'everybody knew it'.
What do you need to prove it?
We cultured the virus from serum from Aids victims.
We know from isolated cases that if a person gets contaiminated with serum containing HIV,then,that person gets AIDs.

That fulfills the requirements of isolation and reinfection.A EM photo is not a requirement of Kosh postulates.
Sorry, but these were only anecdotal reports and not published in any scientific journal. While this can be picky, it can also be seen that the rate of accidental infection for health care workers for AIDS patients is very much lower than for other infectious diseases(eg. hepitatis).

And the phrase 'isolated cases' says it all.
Actually,they were.Not to mention a host of other AIDs related literature.Like for example,New Scientist,(in which it noted that health care workers in Berlin did not get infected,but one other case did{can't remember from where},in book form,the guy who claims that AIDs is a result of the vaccine gave out in Africia to stop Polio.

Furthermore,AIDs is not very containgous.The infectivity is extremely low,as can be noted when health care workers accidently pricked themselves with containimated needles and did not get AIDs.There has also been cases of people having unprotected sex with Aids patients and not contracting AIDs itself.
And beware of confusing the spread of HIV with the actual incidence of AIDS. HIV tests are still a real mess, even with repeated tests, because nobody can be sure if the antibodies detected are indeed caused by the presence of HIV!
And how do you propose to test for the onset of AIDs then?When we begin to see an abnormal drop in T-cell count?Antibody test may not be the standard for the detection of disease,but as AV pointed out to you before,they have been used before,like,for hepatitis.

Outright lie. The amount of 'HIV viri' found in terminally ill AIDS patients is pathetically low. Compare to a disease like the flu.
Thus,supporting the idea that HIV is a chronic disease.The antibodies produced by the body does kill off HIV[at least partially}.However,the body on its own can't eliminate the virus.

The virus remains on a low count,only when compared to acute diseases.
Postulate 2: The germ must be isolated from other germs and from the host's body. The amounts of HIV in AIDS patients are typically so low that the virus must be isolated indirectly from a patient, only after first isolating huge numbers of cells from the patient and then reactivating the virus. In classical diseases, enough active virus is present to isolable directly from the blood or affected tissue; anywhere from one million to one billion units of virus per milliliter of body fluid can be found during the time most viruses cause , and viruses of the same class as HIV are found at levels between 100,000 and 10 million units per milliliter. HIV, on the other hand, is usually found in less than five units and never in more than a few thousand units per milliliter of blood plasma.
And like I've said, using PCR is a cop out. Yes, it can tell you if an item is present, but it cannot give you an good estimate of the original amount of the item.
So,you're trying to say just because we're using an ultra-sensitive technology,we're cheating?How will it take you to understand that AIDS is a chronic disease,not an acute one.

While this objection was valid in 1980s{when a french/belgian group attempted to defend their fungal candiate},when PCR came out,this objection is no longer valid.PCR doesn't add viri into the sample.Through the replication of existing data,it allows for a more sensitive reading,so,instead of requiring 1 millimeter of serum for anaylsis,a fraction of that is required.

This is a good possibility. However, keep in mind this: "What HIV are they using?" And how exactly does a virus create such an effect, if not by infecting the lymphocyte producers(in the lymph nodes) in the marrow? If so, then a substantial amount of HIV should be found in this part of the immune system, or at least enough to account for the greatly reduced influx of CD4 T-cells into the system. But results have shown otherwise. The amount of HIV found is still too low to have any sort of impact on the immune system(perhaps a cumulative effect over time though...).
Yes,we don't know how it does that.

Well, according to the 'slow acting virus' theory being bandied about a few years ago by the HIV group, HIV can be a chronic disease because it kills T-cells 'slowly'. Are you disputing their explanation? :D
What about misinterpretation on your part?How slowly can you kill a cell with a lifetime of a few weeks?We know a diagnostic symptom of AIDS is a low T-cell count.Are you going to suggest that T-cells can suffer extended attrition?Thus,deaths from a previous cycle will have an accumulated effect on the next?
The latest theory of the HIV virus acting by restricting the supply of T-cells might yet be proven... In any case, it seems highly unlikely that any viral infection would remain in such a 'slow state' without a geometric progression towards full depletion of the immune system.
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Post by PainRack »

RedImperator wrote:
Medicus wrote::shock:

Well, I've lurked here for many months, and seem some odd posts, but this one is really out there.

Just some background info, I have an B.S. in Molecular and Cellular Biology, and am currently finishing my second year in med school...
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Post by Queeb Salaron »

So... if HIV isn't necessarily the cause of AIDS, what else COULD cause AIDS? And why hasn't this been brought to light before?
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Post by The_Nice_Guy »

Ravencrow wrote:er... yes it can. The routein labs usually run PCR with standardise postive controls that contain known initial copy numbers, coupled with fluorescense on the primers or probes, one can actually determine the initial copy number in the sample. These days, PCR machines can measure product increase as they run.
Can you find anything on the net where a piece of HIV isolation research used the method you outlined? In addition, does the initial copy number indicate exactly the amount of virus present, or just the strands of their DNA?
And?Does it make a difference whether we classify AIDS as an immunity deficiency disease,in which healthy T-cells disappear from the immune system,thus leaving the victim prey to a host of parasitic disease?
Do you wish to use the circular definition instead? The one you just gave me is perfectly fine, BTW. Better said than me, that's for sure! :wink:
What do you need to prove it?
We cultured the virus from serum from Aids victims.
We know from isolated cases that if a person gets contaiminated with serum containing HIV,then,that person gets AIDs.
Uh, sorry, but the virus cultured from AIDS victims has never been 'proven' to be disease causing. Also, we keep coming back to the problem of the tests themselves. How accurate are they?

They injected some chimps with HIV back in the 80s, and the chimps died of old age without developing AIDs(they were said to have developed some early symptoms though). While this doesn't rule out HIV as a cause of AIDS, it did throw some doubt on the issue. To me though, that point is irrelevant.

And the isolated cases you mentioned? Never published in a scientific journal and peer reviewed, because the cases were so rare compared to the infection rates for other diseases. Yes, this is being picky, but we have to be. This is a serious disease.
That fulfills the requirements of isolation and reinfection.A EM photo is not a requirement of Kosh postulates.
Uh, yes, it is. How else would you know you have got the virus, and not anything else? That the sample isn't being contaminated with all sorts of flotsam? An EM photo will prove beyond all doubt(and I'll be the first to shove the EM photo up the asses of the dissidents and my own) that HIV exists.

It's all about scientific rigor. A well constructed hypothesis like HIV(snicker) should stand up easily to such absurd accusations! :lol:

For example, other retroviruses(indeed most viruses) are put under the microscope nowadays to confirm their isolation. It's a very necessary addition to Koch's postulates. Just look at the present SARS research. Now that's the way it should be, everybody coming up with a theory and others trying to blow them apart with experiments and statistics.
Actually,they were.Not to mention a host of other AIDs related literature.Like for example,New Scientist,(in which it noted that health care workers in Berlin did not get infected,but one other case did{can't remember from where},in book form,the guy who claims that AIDs is a result of the vaccine gave out in Africia to stop Polio.
Let's see now.
No reports are made by Gerberding et al or Henderson et al of any repeat tests in the two health care workers who seroconverted to confirm the diagnosis, and thus it is not known whether these people may have converted back to HIV negative status after their levels of antibodies returned to normal, which can take a number of months.
Of course, that was years ago, and the guy could be blowing off hot air for all we know. But this next portion is quite disturbing.
A final aspect of Gerberding's findings presents another serious question about whether HIV can be transmitted via blood-contaminated needle sticks. They compared the extremely low rate of HIV antibody seroconversion to rates of hepatitis B seroconversion among the health care workers at their HIV-AIDS clinic. Hepatitis B is transmitted the same way that HIV is supposedly transmitted, via direct blood to blood contact or by intimate sexual contacts, and yet, in their own words, "the incidence of hepatitis B was 55 times greater than that of HIV, and 38 times greater than hepatitis C" (p. 1415). Since the setting of this study was a clinic specializing in HIV and AIDS, the prevalence of hepatitis B in the patients seen at the clinic was not expected to be much higher than the 25% to 40% prevalence of HIV positivity. Although not the subject of this paper, problems are also revealed with regards to Hepatitis C infectivity, and there are many other inconsistencies with this virus, as well (Duesberg 1996).
Again, the implications of this is hardly conclusive, but it is still pretty disturbing. HIV can still infect through blood transmission, just that it's not easy to do so. Either that, or its quantity in blood is extremely low.

How do other blood transmitted diseases stack up? What is the normal incidence amongst health care workers?
Furthermore,AIDs is not very containgous.The infectivity is extremely low,as can be noted when health care workers accidently pricked themselves with containimated needles and did not get AIDs.There has also been cases of people having unprotected sex with Aids patients and not contracting AIDs itself.
Wait a minute, do we say the disease is contagious, or the virus itself? Never mind, because you did raise a very interesting issue(and you're completely right on this point).

If it's so tough to get infected with HIV(or AIDS as the case might be), then what do you think the virus can do in the semen during uh... sexual activities? Because according to some reports, the semen environment is supposedly less conducive to viral survival. Can HIV spread through sex? What are the chances?
And how do you propose to test for the onset of AIDs then?When we begin to see an abnormal drop in T-cell count?Antibody test may not be the standard for the detection of disease,but as AV pointed out to you before,they have been used before,like,for hepatitis.
I dunno. But the imperfect correlation of HIV tests with the occurance of AIDS, no matter that we haven't isolated HIV, does suggest something. There was this group that said the HIV test actually tests for those who have failing immune systems, because those antibodies tested for, while they might not be appearing due to HIV, are appearing as a response to deal with increased stress on the body.

Is there any sure fire way to know? Don't ask me.
Thus,supporting the idea that HIV is a chronic disease.The antibodies produced by the body does kill off HIV[at least partially}.However,the body on its own can't eliminate the virus.

The virus remains on a low count,only when compared to acute diseases.
And working in the background to block the supply of CD4 T-cells. However, as some have pointed out, the rate of CD4 T-cell renewal as observed in many HIV positives does not seem to be reduced when compared to healthy people in any way.
So,you're trying to say just because we're using an ultra-sensitive technology,we're cheating?How will it take you to understand that AIDS is a chronic disease,not an acute one.
Yes, yes, I understand it's a chronic disease. However, the current information for AIDS as a chronic disease actually fits the drug hypothesis better than the HIV one.

Because in the end, once AIDS develops, there is no escaping the fact the HIV has to be present in this final stage, which can be said to be acute after a long chronic period of doramncy.
While this objection was valid in 1980s{when a french/belgian group attempted to defend their fungal candiate},when PCR came out,this objection is no longer valid.PCR doesn't add viri into the sample.Through the replication of existing data,it allows for a more sensitive reading,so,instead of requiring 1 millimeter of serum for anaylsis,a fraction of that is required.
The problem with PCR?
PCR is capable of mistaking tiny bits of a person's own genetic material for genetic material of HIV. This is more likely when one considers that the human genome has about 3 billion base pairs, while that of HIV has only about 10,000, and that PCR only looks for about 3% of HIV's genetic material, or about 300 base pairs. It appears likely that some of the 3 billion base pairs in the human genome could happen to have the same coding sequence as that attributed to HIV, and could produce RNA that would be detected by PCR technology.
It'll depend on what they do beforehand to sort out the viral genes from the human ones. And oh, if they can seperate the viral genes from all that flotsam floating about.
What about misinterpretation on your part?How slowly can you kill a cell with a lifetime of a few weeks?We know a diagnostic symptom of AIDS is a low T-cell count.Are you going to suggest that T-cells can suffer extended attrition?Thus,deaths from a previous cycle will have an accumulated effect on the next?
This was what they said. I might have misunderstood their meaning, though you can certainly find fault wih their explanation.
1. Although infected cells do not die as a result of HIV replication, HIV replication is hyperactive. Infected cells churn out huge numbers of new HIV, resulting in a large portion of T4 cells in the lymph nodes becoming infected.

2. T8 cells, which kill any host cell harboring an active (virus-producing) infection, kill the T4 cells that are actively producing HIV.

3. Uninfected T4 cells replicate quickly in order to replace those killed by the T8 cells.

4. Because this process occurs quickly, few infected cells ever get a chance to make it to the general circulation. As a result, clinicians drawing blood samples had previously concluded, erroneously, that only a low percentage of T4 cells are HIV-infected.

5. Although few infected cells ever make it out of the lymph nodes, lots of HIV does, and it is this HIV Ho and Shaw counted with their new technique.

6. Over time -- about a decade -- the T4 population wears down trying to replace all of its members killed by the T8 cells.

7. There is no latency period for HIV. From the moment of initial infection, there is hyperactive HIV replication that quickly spreads to a large portion of T4 cells in the lymph nodes. This "massive covert infection," and the hyperactive "turnover" of T4 cells and HIV, continues unabated throughout a decade or more of clinical latency (no symptoms), into AIDS, and ultimately causes the patient to die.
Well, there you have it.
Elaborate.
The viral mode of reproduction means that unless the antibodies are present to halt them in their tracks at any stage of their reproductive cycle, the spread of viri is likely to be very rapid. The virus itself doesn't have any control mechanisms to slow itself down.
So... if HIV isn't necessarily the cause of AIDS, what else COULD cause AIDS? And why hasn't this been brought to light before?
Wait a minute. We don't know yet for sure that HIV isn't a necessary cause of AIDS. If HIV can be isolated and its existence proven beyond all dpubt, there'll be little dispute. This is a kick in the pants for the scientists to ge their act together, if you catch my drift.

However, even if HIV exists, I would say it is only one of many causes of AIDS, not the only one. Like I've said before, drugs that have an effect on the immune system of the body could also cause AIDS.

Perhaps we can simply give HIV-caused AIDS a new definition, just to set it asie from other causes.

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Post by SPOOFE »

So, lemme get this straight... you're basing your assumption off the fact that the most commonly-used HIV test looks for specific antibodies, and not the virus itself?

You DO know that this is because it's easier to find antibodies than the virus itself, right? And thus, quicker? And thus, better to use for a preliminary test?
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Post by Queeb Salaron »

The question is this: Who the fuck cares?? I don't care if HIV causes AIDS or if you can get aids by thinking about the color purple while having unprotected sex. The point is that it's a terrible disease that needs to be cured. Who cares how it gets there in the first place? We know that AIDS is transmitted through unprotected sex, blood transfusions, or almost any other swapping of bodily fluids. We also know that if what we call HIV goes untreated, it turns into AIDS. Whether HIV exists or not (and, for the record, I'm putting my money on the fact that it does exist), we know that there are ways to try to suppress the AIDS virus from appearing. Whatever we call that precursor to AIDS is irrelevant when compared to the fact that there is SOMETHING causing AIDS, and that "something" needs to be stopped.

Who cares what you call it? Who cares if it's even a virus? Just stop the fucking thing.
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