The two systems are independent of each other, the photorp launcher and the dorsal and ventral phaser strips are well established in previous and subsequent episodes as being located in different sections of the ship. Calling it a 'technical problem' doesn't really answer the question, in fact it begs the question how such a problem could occur. It would be like watching a TV show about a guided missile destroyer and showing a cannon firing a missile, or a missile launcher firing cannon shells.
This problem is even worse than I made it out initially, because IIRC in season one's 'The Battle' the same forward photorp launcher shoots out a tractor beam. Out of universe it's the vfx guys having no clue what to do. In universe, the explanation is
Maybe I'm picking on Star Trek too much. Let's look at B5, particularly season three's 'Severed Dreams'. In the climactic battle, Sheridan orders B5 to fire time-on-target against the EAS Roanoke. Except the EAS Roanoke had just been destroyed after the EAS Churchill collided with it in a previous scene. What B5 was actually shooting at was the EAS Agrippa. In-universe, maybe Sheridan got momentarily confused? Very hard to credit that theory, because he's a professional soldier and highly competent. It wouldn't make sense to slip up like that, especially when there are only two Omega class destroyers in the battle area and one of them had just been destroyed. Out-of-universe, the vfx goofed and they did the wrong model, and because everything was rushed nobody caught onto it before it had already gone to be broadcast.
All these examples are absurd, but no less absurd then warp drive is in the first place. If people can accept warp drive, they can accept the Enterprises's mis-firing of ammunition and Sheridan panicking in the head of battle but his subordinates responding intelligently.
You said this when you replied to my post. I thought you were simply repeating yourself when I had said intentionalism actually isn't used even in literary analysis.
In the piece you quote, I specifically differentiate the rules of literary analysis and intentions by making different criticisms of each.
You're not, because I didn't say it before. I did say however, 'Even in lit circles analysis is done without appealing to the author's intentions, rather someone strives to analyse a text in isolation.'
Point dropped, as I don't see what you're contesting on this one (since we agree I had no way of knowing you were a lit major).
(NOTE: I don't mean to be rude, but now that I know a bit more about the area I have the "material" for an argument. Since some people I have met on other forums might be insulted, apologising just in case)
It's actually pretty complicated. There are different ways to analyse a text, depending on what ideologies you want to apply towards it. For example, you can do a feminist/masculinist/queer/gendered reading of something, or a psychoanalysis instead. Or a cultural reading. Liberal humanism is generally discouraged, as it's very limited in the sort of analysis you can do of a text. (Liberal humanism in the literary sense is more conservative in its approach) If you want I could explain some of these terms for you.
All of these could exist, but many of these analyses have little to do with the actual story (from what I can tell). A cultural reading, for example, seems to effectivelly amount to a cultural analysis (and I don't see how a feminist/masculinist/queer/gendered reading could amount to more then such) and a psycological analysis amounts to discussing how the story impacts the viewer.
These also close off a lot of angles- for example, how can you use literary analysis techniques for a question such as "What are the technical, industrial, and scientific capabilities of the Romulan Empire?". It also prevents a lot of minor questions- the competence of the crew of the Yamato relative to the typical Federation starship, likely amounts of dilithium in the Federation, etc.
Without going too much into it, let's take an example of how an author's intention might inspire an essay, but isn't the focus of it. Say you get the quote by J.K. Rowling that Dumbledore is gay. That's the author's intention. However, you wouldn't write an essay about Dumbledore's sexuality by appealing to the author's intention; such an essay would be a paragraph long after all
Such a method is very good for passing literature classes, but there is no non-pragmatic reason not to simply stop at the author's intention listed here.
Rather, you'd read through the text to see if there are any textual examples.
This can be done through a supension of disbelief method too, of course.
If you wanted to you might even make a comparative analysis of the books and the films. Is what Rowling wrote when she depicted the character of Dumbledore translated onto the screen by the various directors and screenwriters involved in the making of the films?
This doesn't completely invalidate the method, but even this is analysable through suspension of disbelief methodology.
In any case, you'd be looking for subtle, covert signs. At no point, especially in a conservative text like Harry Potter, would Dumbledore's gayness be overtly shown
These aren't "signs" in the regular sense, I assume- if they were, it would be the author's signals which leads back to intentionalism.
What about Hagrid? Can a boy have two father figures in his life? You might go maybe Hagrid is more a 'motherly' figure (even though Hagrid is a male giant).
Doesn't this theory have the massive flaw that it conflicts with how Harry as portrayed would see him? His world view is more conventional, after all.
Anyway, it is worth pointing out that all these questions can be discussed based on a suspension of disbelief theory (I haven't read more then the first book, and that was about five years ago, so I'm judging from guesswork with this), especially given the time spent (presumably) from Harry's POV.
You could quote Hagrid saying how Dumbledore is a great man etc.
If Hagrid was a mother figure and Dumbledore was a father figure, wouldn't that imply a sexual relationship or at least cooperation over dealings with Harry?
Shrek was hyped to be a departure from traditional fairy tales - protagonist is an Ogre, sidekick is a talking donkey, love interest is supposedly an empowered princess - however dive deep into it and you'll find none of that is true.
Even intentionalism can solve this one- the studio was lying, or it is a bad film because they screwed up their own intention.
Just because something is interpretative doesn't mean 'anything can be proven; therefore nothing can be'. If I were to argue Princess Fiona is an empowered female I'd be faced with an uphill battle in order to prove it, because the text gives plenty of overt and covert examples to the contrary.
True enough, but large numbers of questions are ambigious. One can't solve definitively, for example, if Hagrid is a mother figure to Harry, if Voldemort is a metaphor for Harry's nightmares, responsibilities or some worsening mental disorder (Dumbledore is originally considered more then a match for him, and Harry is largely protected from until later books), if Dolores Umbridge is a metaphor for J.K Rowling's sexism (since professional psycology isn't part of literary analysis, and since this isn't the real world one can't use it's techniques), and so on.
Overall, the method seems to analyse the text rather than analyse the universe it is in. This is effectively an ineffectual way at guessing at the psycological impact of a text, rather than answering in-universe questions.