I just love how in your boundless arrogance you attempt to change the meaning of a siege to whatever fits your current mood and argument. A siege can conclude by storming it or by surrendering it. Funny how I didn't claim that the Mongols went around taking every castle by storm. No matter how you slice it if you end up in possession of a castle you successfully besieged it. You know this and you know that it doesn't fit your narrative which is why you attempt to strawman your way out of this argument.Thanas wrote:
They did not. They conquered a few fortreses, but never managed to defeat a fortress by force of arms that required trebuchets to take it - until they imported trebuchets from the west many years later. Feel free to disagree by presenting evidence that the Mongols did take castles by storm that were deemed to be the best of their day.
Normally I would thank someone for an insight like this. But seeing how all you've posted in this thread was bullshit, I'm gonna need a source for this.By living on the grazing plains of the steppe and transitioning to a mass infantry army.
Present evidence for claims I haven't made. Lol. Maybe instead of online posturing you should improve your reading comprehension. Questions are not statements.More on the grazing situation:
So want to make the claim again that somehow, the Mongols, will be able to invade Europe? If so, prevent evidence for the abundance of grazing land.
But thank you for finally giving a source especially one that disagrees with pretty much everything you claimed in this thread. It's gonna be fun contradicting your claims using your own source.
Lets start with the excerpt you posted. The last few sentences indicated the withdrawal from Hungary was a temporary one so that the Mongol horses could rest, replenish and multiply on the vast steppes rather than in overgrazed and devastated Hungary. Nowhere does it state or confirm your claims of a lack of grazing lands deterring an invasion of the rest of Europe.
Except Hungary didn't stand up to no one. They were utterly crushed as described in your own source. Furthermore your own source states thatThe Holy Roman Empire. The French. The British. The Mamluks. Any of these empires is to large to be taken down by raids, if largescale raiding is even possible (see above). If Hungary can stand up to them, the HRE certainly can. I mean, have you ever really taken stock of the castles of that time? There were over 20.000 of those in Germany alone. And surprise, surprise, the most heavily fortified area is pretty much the approach the Mongols would have to take - Bohemia. You note how the Mongols never even attempted to take it?
So unless you're gonna tell me that the English, French and Germans had non feudal armies, why don't you stop with your ludicrous personal opinions."Of course, the Hungarians could have done better; but it is beyond doubt that no ad hoc, feudal type force could have matched the well disciplined, highly trained, professional soldiers of the Mongol army. "
Also the Mamluks were not in Europe. Furthermore they won one battle at Ain Jalut and before Hulegu could retaliate he was fighting with the Golden Horde. Everything else you say is pure conjecture and opinion. Stop passing it off as fact.
No need to project your behavior unto me, I don't have any need to lie. Also your own source mentions a Teutonic presence at Liegnitz. Jesus did you even read it?There is no evidence at all for the Teutonic order to be present. None. Stop with your lies and baseless speculations and prevent evidence. Low numbers are usually to be taken more effective due to the logistical situation and the fact that Poland was not the richest of countries to start with.
There you go evidence from your source. No mention of a ragtag Polish army either. Your next excuse?On April 9th, on the battlefield of Liegnitz, they clashed with the forces of Henry II, duke of Silesia, Bela's cousin, helped by a strong contingent of Templars. The Mongol victory was decisive, and Henry II himself lost his life on the battlefield. Nationalist German claims - which here and there surface - to the effect that, though the battle was lost, it prevented the invasion of Germany, cannot be substantiated. The Mongol aim was the encirclement of Hungary which, now that their rear was safe, they entered from the north-west, through Moravia. Time was pressing, for Orda's army was bound to operate its junction with that of Batu somewhere near Pest, which it intended to reach by going downstream, on the left bank of the Danube. There was no time to enter Bohemia, whose wise king Wenceslas I - though ready to defend his land - avoided any hostile initiative. A small Mongol force sent to reconnoiter the Austrian border withdrew as soon as contact had been made.
As for Hungary, they lay in utter ruins the first time. The second invasion they faced was not anything like the one led by Subutai so I don't see the relevance. It's not like I claimed that the Golden Horde could have conquered Europe. I argue that the unified Mongol Empire could have conquered it. Also Nogai Khan still successfully raided Hungary, and as TC Pilot already pointed out, he was caught up in unfavorable weather conditions as well.
Do you speak Medieval Arabic? If not how did you read his writings?You can read about them in Al-Maqrizi, but he is not available online and I doubt you speak medieval arabic. Other than that, google or wikipedia might help.
Also, when you make a claim and are asked for proof, you provide it or you concede. I don't care if there is no online source. Type it up or scan it. But you and I know very well why you're so reluctant to provide your source. Because it doesn't agree with your lofty claims. In other words you made shit up.
In addition, Wikipedia has entries on the 3rd battle of Homs and the Battle of Shaqhab. The entries don't agree with your claims either. First in both battles the Mongols were outnumbered. In once case 3 or even 4 to 1. Second one was a Mongol victory and the second a Mamluk victory. Hell the entry for the 2nd battle of Homs doesn't help you either. The entry again claims that the Mongols were massively outnumbered. Suffice it to say that Wikipedia is not your friend.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_Marj_al-Saffar
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_ ... -Khazandar
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_Battle_of_Homs
And yet YOUR source talks about armies as big as 150k invading Hungary alone to say nothing of the total army size of 600,000 under Ogedei's command. Explain why you disagree with your source. If it's unreliable why link to it?For total army supply? I am not comfortable making such a definitive claim as it is not my speciality. However, please note that 200.000 men was more than double of what the Romans, with a supply fleet of 600 ships engaged full time, the advantage of friendly terrains, relatively cheap infantry and comparatively few cavalry could supply.
No I don't concede anything. You made a claim. I called you on it. Its on you to provide evidence or concede your claim.I assume you concede the point then?
Your own source states that your so called major powers would have been defeated.They never faced any major European power in the field either.
As I said above, you don't get to define siege according to your whims. Did they conquer castles? Yes. You don't even deny this. Instead youi try to obfuscate the truth.They conquered very few castles at all and none come to mind which they took through a real siege.
I did. It doesn't at all contradict anything I said. Maybe you should follow your own advice and stop contradicting your source.Read the article I linked to in full, please.
More opinions and conjecture.No, it never came to that because even Hungary sucked as a staging ground for an army even half the size of the Mongol force. I find it annoying that you act as if neither Hungary, nor any western nation in Europe never once thought of going mass cavalry. What, they were all too stupid, even after centuries of experience in dealing with Steppe people? Just think how utterly arrogant that argument sounds.