Edi wrote:
Then there's something rotten in it. Freedom of religion is one of the fundamentals of your constitution, and there is an express prohibition of crafting laws respecting religion (any religion). The Constitution is a law (albeit on a higher tier in the hierarchy of laws), so the kind of amendment we're talking about here would itself be unconstitutional. You'd need to reword the First Amendment to remove the prohibition first before the amendment that restricted marriage to heterosexual only could legally fly (because it is expressly designed to respect religion), and somehow I don't see 1st Amendment being tampered with anytime soon...
Article V (of the U.S. Constitution.)
The Congress, whenever two thirds of both houses shall deem it necessary, shall propose amendments to this Constitution, or, on the application of the legislatures of two thirds of the several states, shall call a convention for proposing amendments, which, in either case, shall be valid to all intents and purposes, as part of this Constitution, when ratified by the legislatures of three fourths of the several states, or by conventions in three fourths thereof, as the one or the other mode of ratification may be proposed by the Congress; provided that no amendment which may be made prior to the year one thousand eight hundred and eight shall in any manner affect the first and fourth clauses in the ninth section of the first article; and that no state, without its consent, shall be deprived of its equal suffrage in the Senate.
Considering that the year eight thousand one hundred and eight is long gone,
any change to the constitution can be enacted, except one which deprives a state of its equal suffrage in the Senate, which is completely and utterly permanent unless
all states agree to it (instead of just two-thirds). And notice how in the exception in regard to the first and fourth clauses of the ninth section of the first article it refers to "affect"--the implication there is that an amendment can, in fact, have an affect on the constitution without re-writing it (though of course amendments have struck out actual sections of the constitution), or at least I suspect that could be argued.
I believe that, for instance, an amendment could be passed defining another, or defining an exception to another, and that this would in fact be perfectly constitutionally legal. For instance, Amendment XIX, which gave women the right to vote, simply re-defined suffrage; here is the language:
Amendment XIX
The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of sex.
Congress shall have power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation.
Notice how it also forbids any state for denying women the right to vote. So this not only affects suffrage, but defines this aspect of suffrage in regard to the Tenth Amendment.
Also, how are head-on collisions of equal statutes at the constitutional level handled if not by going to first principles? In order to get a normative ruling in such a case, that's the only way to arrive at a conclusion of any sort unless the people who make that decision just pull it out of their ass.
Edi
Section 2. The judicial power shall extend to all cases, in law and equity, arising under this Constitution, the laws of the United States, and treaties made, or which shall be made, under their authority;--to all cases affecting ambassadors, other public ministers and consuls;--to all cases of admiralty and maritime jurisdiction;--to controversies to which the United States shall be a party;--to controversies between two or more states;--(Amendment XI
The judicial power of the United States shall not be construed to extend to any suit in law or equity, commenced or prosecuted against one of the United States by citizens of another state, or by citizens or subjects of any foreign state.)--between citizens of different states;--between citizens of the same state claiming lands under grants of different states, and between a state, or the citizens thereof, and foreign states, citizens or subjects.
In all cases affecting ambassadors, other public ministers and consuls, and those in which a state shall be party, the Supreme Court shall have original jurisdiction. In all the other cases before mentioned, the Supreme Court shall have appellate jurisdiction, both as to law and fact, with such exceptions, and under such regulations as the Congress shall make.
The trial of all crimes, except in cases of impeachment, shall be by jury; and such trial shall be held in the state where the said crimes shall have been committed; but when not committed within any state, the trial shall be at such place or places as the Congress may by law have directed.
"In all the other cases before mentioned, the Supreme Court shall have appellate jurisdiction, both as to law and fact, with such exceptions, and under such regulations as the Congress shall make."
And, in particular:
arising under this Constitution,
In reality it was never intended for the Supreme Court to have the power it does in interpeting constitutional meaning--it got it through an interesting case in the late 18th century, the case of: Marbury Vs. Madison.
Marbury Vs. Madison
This is essentially what the Supreme Court does now when it strikes down laws--it judges them against the constitution. But even that power is one that it, one might say, "discovered"--though, arguably, existed legally, and has never been challenged or revoked, since as the highest legal court of the land it
has to interpet those situations.
The problem is that it is intended to interpet them under the Constitution. Or, quite simply, the situation you postulate--two sections of the Constitution contradicting each other--is one in which the Supreme Court has absolutely no authority under the constitution itself; the Constitution establishes the Supreme Court only
under the Constitution. It can interpet how the Constitution interrelates with Law, but not the Constitution interrelating with itself. It can't, because the Constitution is the end point of the court. There is nothing beyond the Constitution. That's it--there is no higher law established, and a Supreme Court attempt to strike down a portion of the Constitution would probably be one of several things I can think of in modern America which might cause civil unrest.
The solution, of course, is what I already outlined above. Such a situation would never exist, because a constitutional amendment is a very, very difficult thing to pass. One of them--the twenty-seventh (in order of ratification)--was first put forward in 1789, and
not ratified until 1992. That is how difficult it is to amendment our constitution. On the other hand, those amendments, though exceptionally difficult to put through, can indeed change or modify anything--except for, again, the equal suffrage of the states.
So, yes, an amendment could be proposed which would create an exception to freedom of religion by establishing marriage as a christian institution or somesuch, if it were properly worded--and the Supreme Court could do nothing about it, or at least if it tried (if the wording were not precise enough, that a challenge was allowed), we would have a very, very serious situation on our hands. But would it pass? Never. The standard:
The Congress, whenever two thirds of both houses shall deem it necessary, shall propose amendments to this Constitution, or, on the application of the legislatures of two thirds of the several states, shall call a convention for proposing amendments, which, in either case, shall be valid to all intents and purposes, as part of this Constitution, when ratified by the legislatures of three fourths of the several states, or by conventions in three fourths thereof,
Is that either two-thirds of both houses of Congress, or a constitutional convention called by two-thirds of the states, must call for the amendment. Then it must be ratified by the legislatures, or by conventions, in
three-fourths of the states. Thirty-eight states would have to approve such an amendment, and I simply don't see that
ever happening.