Posted: 2003-12-02 02:43am
verilion... You are attempting to argue a subset of Math, Calculus, is wrong. This is crazy talk.
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It's not a "technicality." Stop making it sound like we're letting a murderer go because a cop forgot to read him his Miranda rights. 0.999~ = 1 because they're different representations of the same number.Spanky The Dolphin wrote:0.999~ = 1, due to a technicallity.
It works out, trust me.Colonel Olrik wrote:Durandal and Kuroneko, both your sigs give me a headache. Part of my brain immediatly starts solving the damned expressions everytime I read one of your posts, and I just can't stop the process. It's very sad
But see, he keeps on posting statements that are essentially 0 = 0 or 1 = 1, etc. This is all obviously nonsense; I can't just take such an affront silently. I have to correct his erroneous ways and show that in fact 0 = 1.Colonel Olrik wrote:Durandal and Kuroneko, both your sigs give me a headache. Part of my brain immediatly starts solving the damned expressions everytime I read one of your posts, and I just can't stop the process. It's very sad :(
Bleh, I meant that more as "technically, 0.999~ = 1," but my word order got messed up. I didn't mean to make it sound like a compromise or such.Durandal wrote:It's not a "technicality." Stop making it sound like we're letting a murderer go because a cop forgot to read him his Miranda rights. 0.999~ = 1 because they're different representations of the same number.Spanky The Dolphin wrote:0.999~ = 1, due to a technicallity.
We've got to get Durandal to clean up your sig, it looks uglyKuroneko wrote:But see, he keeps on posting statements that are essentially 0 = 0 or 1 = 1, etc. This is all obviously nonsense; I can't just take such an affront silently. I have to correct his erroneous ways and show that in fact 0 = 1.Colonel Olrik wrote:Durandal and Kuroneko, both your sigs give me a headache. Part of my brain immediatly starts solving the damned expressions everytime I read one of your posts, and I just can't stop the process. It's very sad
You do some interesting gymnastics with calculus, but (dy/dx)(dx/y) = dy/y != 1.Kuroneko wrote:But see, he keeps on posting statements that are essentially 0 = 0 or 1 = 1, etc. This is all obviously nonsense; I can't just take such an affront silently. I have to correct his erroneous ways and show that in fact 0 = 1.Colonel Olrik wrote:Durandal and Kuroneko, both your sigs give me a headache. Part of my brain immediatly starts solving the damned expressions everytime I read one of your posts, and I just can't stop the process. It's very sad
Two people out of hundreds doing it is hardly what I'd call "popular."Admiral Valdemar wrote:Maybe I should put some equations in my sig too, y'know, just to feel popular. I know some interesting Michaelis-Menten ones.
What are you talking about? (I'll use ' for differentiation for brevity.)Durandal wrote:You do some interesting gymnastics with calculus, but (dy/dx)(dx/y) = dy/y != 1.Kuroneko wrote:But see, he keeps on posting statements that are essentially 0 = 0 or 1 = 1, etc. This is all obviously nonsense; I can't just take such an affront silently. I have to correct his erroneous ways and show that in fact 0 = 1.
Really? I'll take you up on that in a little while, though can I put a couple in? I'm thinking of putting the ones that have been my sigs on automatic rotation.Durandal wrote:EDIT: And yes, if you want to give me the LaTeX for your sig (or just a PDF, assuming you use pdflatex), I'll make it look nice 'n purty for you. :)
It was humour, I don't think there's an equation for that.Durandal wrote:Two people out of hundreds doing it is hardly what I'd call "popular."Admiral Valdemar wrote:Maybe I should put some equations in my sig too, y'know, just to feel popular. I know some interesting Michaelis-Menten ones.
When you expand int(cot x dx) into int(cos x/sin x dx) and then into int[d(sin x)/dx * dx/sin x], you reduce it to sin x/sin x = 1. I don't think that's allowed. It should be reduced to int[d(sin x)/sin x] ... and I don't think that's a valid integral.Kuroneko wrote:What are you talking about? (I'll use ' for differentiation for brevity.)
Sure. I'm not at my home machine right now anyway.Really? I'll take you up on that in a little while, though can I put a couple in? I'm thinking of putting the ones that have been my sigs on automatic rotation.
but he asked for .9 and .9 = 9/10Mad wrote:.111~ = 1/9
.222~ = 2/9
.333~ = 3/9
...
.888~ = 8/9
All of the above are exact and can easily be proven by doing the division 1/9, 2/9, etc.
Therefore: .999~ = 9/9 = 1
No, he asked if 0.999~ = 1, and that is true.Death from the Sea wrote:but he asked for .9 and .9 = 9/10Mad wrote:.111~ = 1/9
.222~ = 2/9
.333~ = 3/9
...
.888~ = 8/9
All of the above are exact and can easily be proven by doing the division 1/9, 2/9, etc.
Therefore: .999~ = 9/9 = 1
shit my short term memory is FUBU because of term papers , your right it is .999Durandal wrote:No, he asked if 0.999~ = 1, and that is true.Death from the Sea wrote:but he asked for .9 and .9 = 9/10Mad wrote:.111~ = 1/9
.222~ = 2/9
.333~ = 3/9
...
.888~ = 8/9
All of the above are exact and can easily be proven by doing the division 1/9, 2/9, etc.
Therefore: .999~ = 9/9 = 1
Right, or rather logarithm of |sin x|. But why would I want to solve the integral when I can prove 0=1 instead? (Heh.)Durandal wrote:EDIT: Well, if we let u = sin x, we can see that the integral becomes int(du/u), and the anti-derivative is ln(u) + C = ln(sin x) + C, which does not equal 1 except under the condition {x|x = 0, pi, 2(pi), ... n(pi)}.
No, it's 0.999~. 0.999 and 0.999~ are different numbers.Death from the Sea wrote:shit my short term memory is FUBU because of term papers , your right it is .999
But .999~ and 1 aren't...which has been the point of the whole threadSpanky The Dolphin wrote:No, it's 0.999~. 0.999 and 0.999~ are different numbers.Death from the Sea wrote:shit my short term memory is FUBU because of term papers , your right it is .999
Indeed.Kuroneko wrote:Right, or rather logarithm of |sin x|. But why would I want to solve the integral when I can prove 0=1 instead? (Heh.)
Oh so that's what you're doing. I'd long since forgotten about the Hell that was integration by parts.Besides, it is not the integral that I'm equating 1 with, but merely one term out of integration by parts. To summarize,
Int[ f'(x)g(x) dx ] = f(x)g(x) - Int[ f(x)g'(x) dx ], and therefore
Int[ cos x / sin x dx ] = sin x/sin x + Int[ cos x / sin x ]
by the assignment f(x) = sin x and g(x) = 1/sin x.
Edit: typo.
Personally, I dislike that u,v,du,dv formulation. Yes, it is prima facie more general, but only at first glance--but if I think of integration by parts as simply the integral of the product rule (fg)' = f'g + fg', then everything comes out easier.Durandal wrote:Oh so that's what you're doing. I'd long since forgotten about the Hell that was integration by parts.